安徽省滁州市南谯区黄泥岗镇初级中学2022--2023学年七年级下学期英语月考一+

2022－2023学年度第二学期综合素质评价

七年级英语试题卷(一)

（人）

注意事项：1.你现在拿到的这份试卷满分为120分。你将有120分钟的答题时间。2.这份试卷共有试题卷6页, 答题卷2页。请你将答案填写在答题卷上。3.答题前, 请你认真审题。考试结束后, 请你将试题卷和答题卷一并交回。

第一部分 听力(共四大题, 满分20分)

I. 短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分; 满分5分)

你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。

1. What does the boy want to do?

2. What can Peter do well?

3. Who likes painting?

 A. The girl. B. The boy. C. The girl and the boy.

4. What does the girl ask Victor to do?

 A. To dance. B. To swim. C. To sing.

5. Can Lisa play the violin?

 A. Yes, she can. B. No, she can't. C. We don't know.

II. 长对话理解(共5小题: 每小题1分;  满分5分)

你将听到两段对话, 每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。

听下面一段对话, 回答第6至7小题。

6. Which subject does Mr. Yang teach?

 A. English. B. Art. C. Music.

7. How many instruments（乐器）can Mr. Yang play?

 A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.

听下面一段对话, 回答第8至10小题。

8. What club does Jim want to join?

 A. The music club. B. The art club. C. The chess club.

9. Where do the speakers play the drums?

 A. At home. B. In the music room. C. In the classroom.

10. What does Jim do on Sunday afternoon?

 A. He learns English. B. He plays the piano. C. He does kung fu.

Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分)

你将听到一篇短文, 短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容, 在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。

11. How many cousins does Frank have?

 A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.

12. Who is Lily?

 A. Frank's mother. B. Tina's aunt. C. Frank's cousin.

13. What does Lily often do on the weekend?

 A. She helps the old men. B. She helps the sick children. C. She helps her parents.

14. What's Tina's favorite subject?

 A. Math. B. English. C. P. E.

15. When is the Music Festival?

 A. On March 4th. B. On March 24th. C. On May 24th.

IV.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分)

你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容, 写出下面表格中所缺的单词, 每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。

第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题, 满分30分)

V. 单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分, 满分10分)

从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

21. —Can you play ________ guitar?    —Yes. And I can play_           chess, too.

 A. the; the B. /; / C. the; / D. /; the

22. Lucy is a singer. She is good at ________.

 A. sing B. singing C. singer D. to sing

23. It is not easy to cross the river on a ropeway, ________ the boy is not afraid.

 A. or B. but C. and D. then

24. Our teachers always_   us not to play soccer in the street. It’s dangerous.

 A. talk B. tell C. speak D. say

25. My sister doesn’t like yellow. She ________ buys yellow clothes.

 A. always B. usually C. sometimes D. never

26. I can’t play chess, my mother can’t, ________.

 A. also B. too C. or D. either

27. We read 7:45 as ________.

 A. seven fifteen B. a quarter to eight C. a quarter past seven D. a quarter past eight

28. Dad is a doctor and he often works for over 12 hours a day. We really ________ his health.

 A. sound like B. think of C. worry about D. talk with

29. The town is ten kilometers ________ the City Garden. Let’s take a bus.

 A. away from B. far away C. far D. far away from

30. I always go to school ________ bike. But today I ________ the bus because it rains.

 A. by; take B. take; take C. on; take D. by; by

VI.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)

阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。

A

Dale is a middle school student. His father has a black car, so his father usually 31 him to school in the car. Dale’s best friend Ben goes to school by 32, because he thinks it is good for his health. Ben often asks (让) Dale to ride a bike with 33 together. Dale 34 Ben is right.

After he gets home, Dale says to his mother, “Mom, I would like to 35 a bike. Would you please buy one 36 me?”

His mother smiles and asks, “37 do you want to ride a bike to school?”

“First, it’s good for my 38. Second, there are a lot of cars and buses on the road, so it is faster (更快的) to 39 a bike to school.”

“OK. Let’s 40 to the supermarket and choose (挑选) one. But you must be careful to ride a bike on the way to school.”

31. A. has B. gets C. tells D. drives

32. A. train B. bike C. taxi D. subway

33. A. he B. his C. him D. them

34. A. makes B. thinks C. swims D. sings

35. A. draw B. help C. play D. have

36. A. on B. to C. for D. from

37. A. What B. How C. Why D. When

38. A. food B. friend C. subway D. health

39. A. show B. ride C. walk D. take

40. A. go B. get  C. talk  D. clean

B

My name is Jill. I study in a middle school. There are many 41 in my school. For me, I join 42 clubs: the guitar club, the dancing club and the basketball club.

First, there are many 43 at the guitar club and most of them are boys. They think playing the guitar can make 44 cool. And I 45 think so. Second, I join the dancing club 46 I want to learn street dancing (街舞) at the club. And I will learn 47 Chinese folk dance, too. Today there is a 48 of street dancing at the art festival. I’m happy that I can dance well 49 all the students and teachers. Third, there is no need to 50 that most boys like basketball. It’s a healthy sport. I like it very much.

41. A. games B. subjects C. clubs D. stories

42. A. five B. two C. three D. four

43. A. teachers B. girls C. students      D. men

44. A. us B. them C. him D. her

45. A. too B. then C. all D. also

46. A. so B. or C. because D. but

47. A. some B. any C. no D. first

48. A. photo B. show C. watch D. dancer

49. A. with B. to C. for D. in

50. A. talk B. say C. speak D. call

第三部分   阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分）

VII.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。

A: Hello, I’m Miss Smith! 51 B: Yes, please. I want to join your club on weekends.

A: Great! We have a sports club, an art club, a story telling club and a music club. 52

B: I want to join the music club.

A: OK. 53 B: No, I can’t.

A: 54 B: I can play the guitar.

A: That’s great. 55 B: My name is Jim Green. Thank you!

A: You are welcome.

   51. _________52. _________53. _________54. _________55._________

VIII.阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)

阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。

A

Most people make their living with their hands. But Tom makes his living with his feet. A very good living it is, too.

Tom’s story begins in a very small city in England. His parents were very poor. Seven people lived in their small house. Tom had no place to play in it but in the street.

Tom’s father often played football, and little Tom wanted to play football, too. So his father made a nice ball for him to play. The little boy played it every day.

At last Tom learned to play a real football, and after a few years he could play football very well.

Now Tom is one of the best football players.

56. Tom makes his living with his _______.

 A. hands B. head C. feet D. legs

57. Tom’s parents lived in a_______ city in England.

 A. small B. big C. new D. old

58. Tom’s father ________ a football for him to play.

 A. bought B. borrowed C. built D. made

  B

Tom and Mike are good friends. They are kind to children. They want to find summer jobs. One day Tom tells Mike that Kids Summer Camp needs help with sports, music and computers. They are both very glad to hear (听说) this.

Tom can play basketball and volleyball, and he can swim, too. Mike can play the violin, the trumpet (喇叭), the drums and the guitar. Tom and Mike like computers very much. Can they join Kids Summer Camp?

59. Tom and Mike want to _________ .

 A. help with sports, music and computers B. be good with children

 C. join Kids Summer Camp D. get help from the Camp

60. What does the summer camp need help with?

 A. Flying kites.  B. Sports, music and computers.

 C. Making cakes.  D. Drawing pictures.

61. Tom can play _________ .

 A. volleyball  B. computer games

 C. music  D. violin

62. Mike can play _________ .

 A. the drums B. volleyball C. basketball D. football

C

Jenny is my friend. She has a happy family. In the morning, she gets up at five forty. She takes a shower and then eats breakfast at half past six. Her parents usually get up at five o’clock. They run for thirty minutes and go home to take showers. Then her mother makes breakfast at six o’clock, and her father watches news on TV.

After breakfast, Jenny’s parents go to work and Jenny goes to school. They don’t have lunch at home. In the afternoon, Jenny goes home at half past four. She always does her homework after she gets home. Her parents come back at five thirty. They have dinner at six thirty.

In the evening, she either reads books or watches TV, but she can only watch TV for twenty-five minutes. Her parents say it’s bad for her eyes to watch TV too much. She has to go to bed at about nine o’clock.

63. How many people are there in Jenny’s family?

 A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

64. What time do Jenny’s parents take showers?

 A. At 5: 20 a.m.    B. At 5: 30 a.m.     C. At 5: 40 a.m.     D. At 6:00 a.m.

65. How long can Jenny watch TV?

 A. For 1 hour.      B. For 2 hours.     C. For 35 minutes.    D. For 25 minutes.

D

Ted is an artist. He is tall with long curly hair. He usually gets up at nine thirty in the morning. First he runs for an hour, then he eats breakfast. He likes eggs, bananas and apples for breakfast. He doesn’t like meat or hamburgers. Ted never watches TV in the evening. He likes painting pictures. He goes to bed late at about eleven o’clock.

Ted also gives art lessons. He is a good teacher. All his students like him. He usually takes a bus to the school and walks back home. Ted now lives in a small house in the city. He wants to have a painting show. He is working hard for it.

66. What time does Ted usually get up?

 A. At 19:00. B. At 9:30. C. At 10:30. D. At 11:00.

67. Ted likes ________ for breakfast.

 A. eggs and fruits  B. eggs and vegetables

  C. eggs and meat  D. meat and hamburgers

68. Ted ________ in the evening.

 A. gives art lessons   B. watches TV

 C. does some reading   D. paints pictures

E

Hello, I’m Anna. How do you usually go to work? By bus? My family have different ways of going outside. My parents work in a hospital. The hospital is far from our home, so they go to work by car. The car ride takes about 45 minutes. My sister has a clothes store. It’s about 2 kilometers from her store to our home. She goes there on foot every day. She thinks walking is good for health. My brother and I are middle school students. We take the school bus to school. My brother thinks taking the school bus is boring, but I don’t think so, because I can talk with my classmates on the bus. It gives me a lot of fun. I like every minute of it. What about your family? Do you have the same way of going outside or different?

69. How many people are there in Anna’s family?

 A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six.

70. Where does Anna’s father work?

 A. In a school.  B. In a hospital. 

  C. In a clothes store.    D. At a bus station.

71. How far is it from Anna’s home to her sister’s store?

 A. Three kilometers.    B. Five kilometers.  

  C. Two kilometers.  D. Four kilometers

72. How does Anna’s brother get to school?

 A. Take the school bus. B. Ride his bike. C. Walk. D. Take the car.

F

阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题后面的词数要求）。

Dear Robert,

Thanks a lot for your last letter. I know you want to know what sports I can play and what club I want to join. Well, let me tell you now. I can swim. It’s fun and interesting! I can play the guitar and basketball. But I can’t play soccer. I think it’s hard. I am good at playing chess. I play chess every weekend. My favorite sport is swimming. So I want to join the swimming club. What about you? What’s your favorite sport? What club do you want to join?

Please tell me.

Yours,

Tom

73. Can Tom play basketball? （不超过5个词）

   ______________________________________________________________________

74. What is Tom good at?（不超过10个词）

   ______________________________________________________________________

75. What is Tom good at?（不超过5个词）

   ______________________________________________________________________

第四部分    写（共两大题，满分25分）

IX. 单词拼写 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。

76. I want to be a m_________（音乐家）in the future.

77. —Could you please s________ (给……看) me your new photos?

—Sure. Here you are.

78. The hamburgers t________ (品尝) so delicious, and I like eating them.

79. Lily’s grandmother is over n_______ (九十) years old, but she is still in good health.

80. Her d________ (梦想) is to be a star like Zhang Ziyi.

X. 书面表达 (共1小题；满分20分)

假设你叫Mary，给你在英国的笔友Lucy发一封邮件，向她介绍一下你晚上的活动,不少于8个活动。（如到家，吃晚饭，做作业，弹吉他，看电视，刷牙，淋浴，上床睡觉等）可自由发挥。字数在60字左右。

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2022－2023学年度第二学期综合素质评价

七年级英语（一）参考答案及评分标准

I-IV.听力(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)

1-5 CCCBB  6-10 CCBBC  11-15 BCBAB

16. swimming  17. art  18. draw  19. sing  20. musician

V.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)

21～25 CBBBD          26～30 DBCAA

VI.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)

31～35 DBCBD          36～40 CCDBA

41～45 CCCBD          46～50 CABCB

VII.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

51～55 GEBAC

VIII.阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)

56～58 CAD

59～62 CBAA

63～65 BCD

66～68 BAD

69～72 CBCA

73. Yes, he can. 

74. He is good at playing chess. 

75. Swimming. /His favorite sport is swimming. 

IX.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

76. musician      77. show    78. taste  79. ninety    80. dream

X. 书面表达(共1小题；满分20分)

Dear Lucy,

I’m glad to write to you. You ask me what you usually do in the evening in China. Usually the school is over at five. Then I go home. At six I have dinner. After dinner I do homework. When I finish doing homework, I play the guitar. Then I watch TV. At 9:00 I brush my teeth and take a shower. At half past nine I go to bed.