2020年全国高考冲刺压轴卷 英语
展开2020年全国高考冲刺压轴卷(样卷)
英语
注意事项：
1.本卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡.上的非答题区域均无效。
3.非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡，上的非答题区域均无效。
4.考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In the street. B. At a police station. C. In a public bathroom.
2. What will the man possibly do on Friday?
A. Leave Washington. D. C. B. Meet the woman. C. Take the woman to New York
3. Who may Dr. Philips be?
A. The man's old friend. B. The speakers' gardener. C. The woman's new neighbor.
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient.
5. Where will the woman go next?
A. A bookstore. B. Her office. C. An employee's house.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What's the weather like now?
A. Cool. B. Sunny. C. Cold.
7. What did the man leave hack in the room?
A. His glasses. B. His suit. C. His wallet.
听第7段材料，回答第8，9题。
8. What is the presentation mainly about?
A. How climate change affects oceans.
B. What people can do to protect the planet.
C. Why climate change should he prevented.
9. How did the man get inspiration for his speech?
A. He read a novel that raised his interest.
B. He got it after watching a great movie.
C. He was inspired by the woman's research.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did the man think of the awards?
A. They were funny. B. They were boring. C. They were fair.
11. Who won an award for the achievement in sports?
A. Chris. B. Paul. C. Mary.
12. Why is the man going back to school?
A. To receive more awards. B. To help the younger kids. C. To attend the school dance.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why does the woman look disappointed?
A. She had to get into the same course this term.
B. She failed to take the ecology course this term.
C. She was forced to learn psychology last term.
14. How many classes does the woman need to take next term
A. Two. B. Three. C. Five
15. What does the man probably want to become?
A. An engineer. B. A math teacher. C. A detective.
16. What can we know about the woman?
A. She thinks highly of her professors.
B. She doesn't get on well with the man.
C. She is positive about the man's future.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does the speaker say about Huacachina?
A. It is very wealthy. B. It is a capital city. C. It is a remote village.
18. When can you reach Huacachina from Comatrana?
A. After taking a bus for 30 minutes.
B. After taking a taxi for 20 minutes.
C. After waking for less than 10 minutes.
19. What can you do in Huacachina for entertainment?
A. Visit ancient temples. B. Build sand vehicles. C. Have a bath in the lake.
20. What is the speaker's purpose?
A. To introduce places of interest.
B. To recommend a place to visit.
C. To show the beauty of a village.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Have you always dreamed of speaking another language? Traveling to Italy and striking up a conversation with the locals? Surprising your friends by ordering dinner in perfect French? Would you like to get a leg up at work by speaking Spanish-or even Mandarin Chinese?
With the Pimsleur Method, you'll he able to learn any language you want as you go about your day. You can learn on your way to work, or while you're out running tasks, cooking dinner, walking the dog and so on in just 30 minutes a day. In fact, Pimsleur's scientifically-proven method is so powerful that you'll actually start speaking a new language after a few lessons.
How is it possible? 50 years ago, Dr. Paul Pimsleur, a linguistics(语言学)professor and researcher at Ohio State University and UCLA, discovered that the way to effectively acquire a new language is by hearing the language used in everyday situations and using it so it easily sticks in your mind.
The Pimsleur Method develops your natural ability to listen so you can:
Understand what you hear.
Respond easily and naturally.
Pronounce words with a near-native accent.
Amaze friends and family.
There is nothing more exciting or enjoyable than speaking a new language.
Click here now to try Pimsleur's Revolutionary Method Free for One Week and you can:
Enjoy your international travels on a completely different level.
Take a first step to get a leg up at work.
Easily build a close relationship with people from other countries.
Put colleagues or customers at ease by speaking to them in their languages.
Impress friends by chatting with the waiter in Italian.
Surprise foreign friends or family by conversing with them in their languages.
21. For a learner, what is the Pimsleur Method meant to develop?
A. Writing and speaking. B. Listening and writing.
C. Listening and speaking. D. Reading and speaking.
22. What can you achieve by trying the method for free?
A. You can better enjoy your international travels.
B. You can reach the highest foreign language level.
C. You can speak with foreign friends with native accents.
D. You can improve your translation and respond effectively.
23. What's the main purpose of the text?
A. To introduce Paul Pimsleur and his method.
B. To explain the importance of foreign languages.
C. To persuade readers to learn foreign languages.
D. To advertise a method of learning foreign languages.
B
Less than 24 hours after undergoing(经历)lifesaving surgery, Milli Lucas smiled from ear to ear as she thanked her supporters from her hospital bed. The 12-year-old girl made her first public appearance since her operation on Tuesday when visited by Today Tonight's Mark Gibson.
The youngster went into a six-hour surgery on Monday in an attempt to remove her brain tumour(肿瘤). Hours later, her mother Monica Smirk announced the operation was a success. Milli has enjoyed her first post-surgery meal and is now recovering.
The young girl's battle with brain cancer received national attention after her family was forced to raise money for the procedure performed by Dr. Teo. The surgeon spoke for the first time after the operation, admitting the procedure was one of the "most difficult" that he had done in his career. Dr. Ten was able to remove 98 percent of the girl's tumour, and has referred her to specialists in Germany who will work on getting rid of the remaining two percent.
Earlier, Ms. Smirk told the West Australian that Milli was recovering well after the operation. She wrote on Facehook, "Milli is awake and in ICU. The operation was a success. Her right leg and arm are moving. Thank you! Everyone of you for your support and love. She's so amazing.”
The little girl was wearing smiles as she was taken into the operating theatre for surgery, but the procedure was not without risks. Doctors said the operation could leave her with permanent weakness in one side of her body, or at worst paralysis(瘫痪). Dr. Teo said while the future was often cruel for those who underwent the high-risk procedure. Milli should he commended for her courage and bravery.
24. How did Milli Lucas feel after the surgery?
A. Relieved but regretful. B. Delighted and grateful.
C. Thrilled and curious. D. Relaxed hut terrified.
25. It can he inferred that Milli Lucas .
A. is bound to suffer from paralysis B. has totally got rid of her illness
C. is likely to have another operation D. will receive more financial support
26. Why did Monica Smirk write something on Facehook?
A. To comfort others and convince her daughter of love.
B. To draw nationwide attention to her suffering daughter.
C. To encourage her daughter to stay brave and optimistic.
D. To inform her daughter's condition and express thanks.
27. Which of the following best explains the word “commended" underlined in the last paragraph?
A. Saved. B. Ignored. C. Assessed. D. Praised.
C
You'll need to take a deep breath before hearing this news. An astonishing 93% of kids around the world live in environments with air pollution levels that are damaging their health, according to a new report by World Health Organization(WHO).
Air pollution is to blame for the deaths of 543,000 kids under 5 in 2016, with more than one in four deaths of children under five-years-old being related to environmental problems. Exposure to air pollution can damage the health of kids in a variety of ways, either causing or being associated with everything from low birth weight to childhood ohesity(肥胖)and so on. "The diseases and deaths shown by these new data should result in an urgent call to action for the global community(社区)-especially for those concerning health," WHO stated. "Strong action to reduce exposure to air pollution offers a chance to protect the health of children.” The report stressed that health experts should communicate with families, communities and policy-makers about the serious risks of air pollution exposure. "Although more researches into how air pollution affects children's health will continue to he valuable, there is already evidence to justify(证明……有理)strong and swift action to prevent the damage it clearly produces,” WHO added.
Disease caused by dirty air is more common in low- and middle-income countries, especially those in Africa, Southeast Asia, and Western Pacific. Poor countries in these areas have the highest levels of exposure to household air pollution due to the use of polluting fuels and technologies for basic needs like cooking, heating and lighting.
Advised approaches to dealing with air pollution include cleaner transport, cleaner cooking and heating fuels and technologies, energy-efficient housing and urban planning, safer industrial technologies and better waste management.
28. What is the second paragraph mainly about?
A. The varieties of illnesses most children are living with.
B. The serious results of widespread environmental problems.
C. The harmful influence of air pollution on children's health.
D. The health problems from birth resulting from air pollution.
29. What does WHO say about air pollution exposure?
A. It needs to be cut down. B. It is truly out of control.
C. Its risks require proving. D. Its damage is poorly known.
30. What most likely leads to household air pollution?
A. Old and outdated public transport. B. Unclean cooking and heating fuels.
C. Money-saving waste management. D. Inexpensive industrial technologies.
31. From which section of a newspaper is the text most probably taken?
A. Lifestyle. B. Environment. C. Medicine. D. Science.
D
We have recently heard some interesting ways that 5G wireless technology might change our lives in the future. 5G promises internet speeds between 50 to 100 times faster than present 4G systems. The technology was also built to handle many more users without slowing wireless services down. Such improvements are sure to he popular with 5G users worldwide.
One project in Britain, Though, is testing this superfast technology on internet users-cows. The system connects the animals to 5G in an effort to automate the milking process.
The project was developed by American technology company Cisco Systems. It is part of a Cisco-led program called 5G RuralFirst. The project also receives money from the British government. Dairy cows wear 5G smart collars that allow them to be milked by a robotic milking machine at a farm in Shepton Mallet, England. The program seeks to explore the possibilities of 5G connectivity in rural(乡村的)communities around the world. Rural areas are expected to he the last to receive 5G service.
Testing areas were set up at farms in three rural areas of England. The cows are fitted with 5G smart collars and ear sensors. These devices(设备)link up to a robotic milking system. The system uses sensors and machines learning to fully automate the process. System designers say technology takes over after a cow feels ready to he milked and walks toward an automatic gate. The device is designed to recognize each cow. It then positions equipment to the right body position for milking. During the process, the machine reward the cow with food.
Project officials say the devices do not harm the cows and the ear sensors permit farmers to immediately identify any health concerns.
Nick Chrissos who works on the project for Cisco said the system could connect every cow. and every other animal on the whole farm. "That's what 5G can do for farming-really spread the power that we have within this farm, everywhere around the United Kingdom, and everywhere around the world.”
32. Why does Cisco Systems test its project at farms in rural areas of England?
A. It intends to know the potential of 5G connectivity in worldwide rural areas.
B. It wants to make some changes and improvements on 5G technology secretly.
C. The British government requires it to instruct farmers to produce more milk.
D. People in rural areas are actually in urgent need of 5(; connectivity for farming.
33. What is the function of the ear sensors?
A. Detecting the stability of 5G wireless services.
B. Assisting the cows in producing milk slowly.
C. Offering healthy food to the cows as rewards.
D. Observing the health condition of the cows.
34. What's Nick Chrissos's attitude toward the role 5G plays in farming?
A. Ambiguous. B. Doubtful. C. Positive. D. Worried
35. What is the best title for the text?
A. A Special Program Called 5G RuralFirst B. 5G Helps in the Milking Process of Cows
C. The Future Development of 5G Technology D. Cows Connected to 5G Produce More Milk
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Music most likely isn't the largest reason motivating where you choose to dine. 36 And according to Nation's Restaurant News，if they aren't thinking about music, they should be.
In a recent post about music's role in restaurant design, author Mark Brandau details the different ways sound influences sales, how different times of the day call for their own soundtrack and how restaurants cater to certain diners. Here are a few "notes" to keep in mind the next time you need to pick a restaurant:
It's someone's job to build playlists. Restaurant owners hire experts to build music playlists which don't include commercials and need to he scored. These paid-for playlists are required for different times of the day. 37
What you hear at lunch won't he what you hear at dinner. And what you hear after dinner will be something entirely different. 38 In that case, soft music may he key to helping them create the atmosphere.
You probably have heard some songs before. 39 Ambiance Radio offers playlists for Little Greek, in Florida. and also Schlotzsky's and Union Square Café, in New York City. Vojnovic, who started his career at Chili's, said that years ago, instrumental tapes of background music were changed only once per quarter.
40 Brandau explains that some restaurants prefer to pump up the volume(音量), not to annoy certain groups of customers, but to stay true to their main guests. If college students are a restaurant's target consumers, the restaurant may deliberately play music older crowds consider uninviting.
A. Music builds restaurants' brands.
B. Music helps restaurants choose diners.
C. Some restaurants aim to increase late-night traffic.
D. Restaurants may be using the same music providers.
E You go to a certain restaurant due to its various songs.
F. Therefore, there's enough variety to avoid repeating songs.
G. However, restaurant owners put much thought into what they play in their restaurants.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
"If you could have any three things, what would you want?" Eleven-year-old Ruby Kate 41 asking this question at nursing homes in the Harrison, Arkansas, where she lives. Even more 42 , she then tries to make the residents'(居民的)wishes come true.
Ruby Kate has long been 43 to older people. Her mother, Amanda Chitsey, is a nurse who works at nursing homes in northwest Arkansas, and Ruhy Kate often 44 her. "I've never found them 45 , so I am able to just go up to them and ask what three things they want,” she says.
Last May, Ruby Kate 46 a resident named Pearl was staring out a window. She seemed 47 . "What are you looking at?" Ruby Kate asked. Pearl said she was watching her dog being led away by its new 48 . Pearl didn't know when she'd see her dog 49 .
Ruby Kate and Amanda Chitsey 50 and discovered that the nursing home didn't allow residents to have dogs and Pearl couldn't 51 to pay anyone to look after hers. They also learned that many nursing home residents even had no money for the 52 luxuries(奢侈品). So Ruby Kate got a(n) 53 to do something about it.
And she decided to take action. She 54 by asking residents what three things they wanted most. Amanda Chitsey 55 that people would ask for cars and other things an 11-year-old wouldn't he able to 56 . To her relief, they asked for chocolate bars, McDonald's fries, pants and the like.
Using their own money. Ruby Kate and Amanda Chitsey granted(准予)the 57 of about 100 people. Then they started asking for 58 .
The good people of Harrison 59 so enthusiastically, and Amanda Chitsey set up a GoFundMe page, hoping to collect$5.000. Ruby Kate and Amanda Chitsey hit their 60 in a month. With the money, they were able to do more things.
41. A. admits B. loves C. allows D. appreciates
42. A. instantly B. shockingly C. amazingly D. gradually
43. A. close B. important C. equal D. polite
44. A. assesses B. approaches C. defends D. follows
45. A. pitiful B. scary C. dirty D. unhealthy
46. A. proved B. sensed C. noticed D. stated
47. A. tired B. sad C. regretful D. disappointed
48. A. neighbor B. nurse C. owner D. seller
49. A. too B. soon C. instead D. again
50. A. asked around B. spoke up C. hung out D. stopped by
51. A. afford B. choose C. plan D. determine
52. A. greenest B. ugliest C. smartest D. smallest
53. A. agreement B. permission C. urge D. chance
54. A. managed B. started C. continued D. insisted
55. A. believed B. expected C. doubted D. worried
56. A. provide B. accept C. handle D. tolerate
57. A. promises B. wishes C. orders D. challenges
58. A. supplies B. suggestions C. donations D. shelters
59. A. responded B. functioned C. sought D. performed
60. A. destination B. center C. schedule D. target
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I wasn't a skinny kid, but that didn't stop me from dreaming of being a fashion model. I used to admire my mother's 61 (beauty) modeling pictures and dream "what if" and "one day" for myself.
Years later, as a young woman, I came across an advertisement 62 (look)for plus-size models for a fashion show at a nearby department store. I went. I wore clothes I never thought 1 63 (wear) and walked up and down the center aisle(过道) 64 (attract) shoppers. My dream became a 65 (real) and I told myself, "You can do this!"
I joined a plus-size modeling agency and followed the dream I had had since I was a young girl. I never realized it could have an effect on anyone outside of myself until one day, 66 I worked on the beach. While I was doing a photo shoot, I saw a young and plus-size girl who was watching from the sidelines. She turned 67 her mom, excited, "Mommy. I can he a plus-size model!”
It was then 68 I realized my confidence in my size showed others that they, too, could he confident and do whatever they wanted to do in life.
Therefore, I want to tell all of you that being plus-size just 69 (mean) appreciating and loving 70 (you) so much that you are confident to he what you want to he!
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
When stick in traffic, I noticed the woman in the car next to me crying. Alone in her car, she was kept wiping her tears and struggled to caught her breath. Honest speaking. I didn't mean to stare. and I could hardly look away. As she pulled her car ahead of me, I could still see her crying for quite a few minute. When it was my turn to drive up besides her, I managed to get her attention by waving a little toy pig in car and smiled at her. She gave me the smile, too. At that moment, traffic cleared up and we drive off.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华，今年是我国建国70周年，你市将在市博物馆举行建国70周年中国成就展。你的新西兰好友Peter很想了解中国的发展变化。请你给他发一封电子邮件，邀请他参观。内容包括：
1.写信目的；
2.展览的时间、地点、内容；
3.你的希望。
注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
