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2023-2024学年河北省石家庄市河北师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案
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这是一份2023-2024学年河北省石家庄市河北师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案，文件包含河北省石家庄市河北师范大学附属中学2023-2024学年高二上学期10月月考英语试题原卷版docx、河北省石家庄市河北师范大学附属中学2023-2024学年高二上学期10月月考英语试题解析版docx等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共47页， 欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What des Michelle want t d?
A．Have dinner B．D her hmewrk. C．Write a thank-yu nte.
2．What will the speakers d this weekend?
A．G t Disneyland. B．Visit a museum. C．Write an article.
3．When did the wman cme t the US?
A．In 1973. B．In 1975. C．In 1977.
4．Hw is prbably the weather tday?
A．Warm. B．Ht. C．Wet.
5．What are the speakers talking abut?
A．A TV shw. B．The man’s hbby. C．Wildlife prtectin.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What did Jasn think f Karen’s fd?
A．Delicius. B．Unhealthy. C．Terrible.
7．What des the wman suggest Jasn d?
A．Observe the bees. B．Have sme ice cream. C．Study English slang.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What is the man’s plan fr the weekend?
A．Attending a wedding. B．Ging t a party. C．Watching a film.
9．Why will the wman thrw a party this Saturday?
A．Fr huse-warming. B．Fr her birthday. C．Fr a prmtin.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10．What can kids d thrugh Bryan’s Facebk page?
A．Listen t stries. B．Chat with friends. C．Enjy nice phts.
11．Wh inspired Bryan t start a Facebk page?
A．His father. B．His mther. C．His grandmther.
12．What des Bryan want the wman t d?
A．Jin him in reading stries. B．Recrd kids’ daily life. C．Spend mre time with kids.
第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．Where might Henry be when he smelled sme smke?
A．In the yard. B．In the kitchen. C．In the living rm.
14．Wh called 911?
A．Henry. B．A bystander. C．The guy in the burning huse.
15．Hw many peple ran int the burning huse?
A．1. B．2. C．3.
16．What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A．Brther and sister. B．Clleagues. C．Interviewer and interviewee.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Hw ld is the speaker’s brther?
A．15. B．19. C．20.
18．What is the speaker’s mther?
A．A plice fficer. B．A nurse. C．A firefighter.
19．Why is it hard fr the speaker t see her brther nw?
A．Her brther has been infected with COVID-19.
B．Her brther is in islatin （隔离） because f COVID-19.
C．Her brther is busy helping fight against COVID-19.
20．What des the speaker decide t d in the future?
A．Help mre peple like her brther.
B．Spend mre time with family.
C．Study in a plice training schl.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Discver hw yu can help endangered species! Vlunteer t help cnserve endangered species arund the wrld with GEc.
Sea turtles, Sri Lanka
The species is threatened by human hunters. The Sri Lankan gvernment has apprved the creatin f hatcheries (孵化场) in rder t prtect this species. Vlunteers n this prgram spend 60% f their time wrking in the hatchery and the ther 40% is spent n activities such as beach cleanups and creating awareness within the lcal cmmunity.
Prgram Fees: $1280 fr 2 weeks and $1,680 per mnth fr vlunteers.
Wildlife Rescue, Western Australia
Adult kangars and wallabies are hunted fr fd, leaving thusands f their babies withut parents. Many are killed r injured in rad accidents. At the wildlife rescue center in Perth, Western Australia, vlunteers live and help in the bushland caring fr sick, injured, and displaced animals.
Prgram Fee: $2,095 fr fur weeks. Vlunteers stay n-site in a small rm. Due t very limited space, applicatins must be sent at least 9-12 mnths in advance.
Endangered Species Reserve, Suth Africa
The prject will give yu an incredible wildlife experience while learning abut cnservatin effrts. Fr the rest f the time between mnitring sessins, vlunteers are required t enter all the data that they have cllected int ur databases. At times, vlunteers need t perate n night shifts. We als give lectures and presentatins ver the lunch perid.
Prgram Fee: $1,750 fr 2 weeks
Big Cat Refuge Suth Africa
As a vlunteer n this prject, yu will be invlved in a wide variety f activities. Vlunteer’s wrk ranges frm enrichment activities, such as ty-making and farm wrk, t educating the visitrs. Vlunteers will als directly care fr the cats by preparing fd r feeding them as well as maintaining their living space.
Prgram Fee: $1,450 fr 2 weeks
1. What is the mnthly prject fee fr vlunteers in Sri Lanka?
A. $1,280.B. $1,680.C. $2,560.D. $2,960.
2. What is required f vlunteers fr the prject in Western Australia?
A. Having previus experience.
B. Wrking night shifts smetimes.
C. Applying fr the prject in advance.
D. Having a gd knwledge f wildlife.
3. What can vlunteers d fr the prject Big Cat Refuge?
A. Study the habits f big cats.
B. Help t sell sme tys abut cats.
C. Guide visitrs t the habitat f the cats.
D. D daily rutines in the cats’ living space.
B
A mther f nine wh started medical schl when her yungest child was 4 years ld graduated with her degree and plans t be a neursurgen (神经外科医生).
Sarah Merrill, nw 41, said her jurney t medical schl began at age 17. She then met her husband and gt married. Merrill first thught abut ging t schl part-time t get a degree, but later she decided t fllw her dream f attending medical schl. Certainly, it was a challenge. Speaking f her successfully returning t university, Merrill thught it was credited t her family largely. “When I was accepted at May Clinic Alix Schl f Medicine, we mved frm Pennsylvania t Arizna,” said Merrill, wh is mving t Indiana with her family t begin her residency (实习期) in neursurgery. “In fact, they vlunteered these mvements. I knw it was tugh fr all f us.”
Merrill and her children ften have “hmewrk parties” where they study fr their wn curses. Merrill’s chice has given a stimulus t her children. Merrill felt tuched knwing her 11-year-ld daughter wants t becme a surgen and verhearing her sn tell his friends his mm’s ging t be a cl brain surgen, thugh he desn’t understand that really.
Merrill’s next step int a neursurgery residency will take her int a male-dminated field where nly 5% f bard certified neursurgens are wmen. Dr. Michele Halyard at May Clinic Alix Schl f Medicine said Merrill was knwn as a fcused student. Halyard said, “If yu can deal with nine children and keep yur reasn, the residency shuld be a piece f cake because n amunt f stress will make yu fail.”
Merrill had cnsidered chsing a mre family-friendly specialty, but, again, chse t dream big and fllw her riginal pursuit. It’s the same advice she wuld give t all. “Set the gal that is what yu’re really enthusiastic abut, and it helps t think small. If yu knw what yur pririties are, fcus n the next step. Then yu’ll get where yu want t g.”
4. Why des Merrill speak f their mvements?
A. T shw the supprt f her family.
B. T stress her determinatin t be a dctr.
C. T reflect difficulties in attending cllege.
D. T describe the prcess f pursuing her dream.
5. What des the underlined wrd “stimulus” mean in paragraph 3?
A. Entertainment.B. Inspiratin.
C. Cmmitment.D. Cnfusin.
6. What des Halyard mean in paragraph 4?
A. Merrill will have mre stress t handle.
B. Staying fcused and sensible is key t success.
C. Being Mm makes Merrill a better dctr.
D. She is cnfident f Merrill’s being a neursurgen.
7. What des Merrill suggest at last?
A. Starting with small things.
B. Getting yur pririties right.
C. Being true t yur passin.
D. Having the curage t dream big.
C
Giving silkwrm silk a metallic bath may make the strands (丝线) bth strng and slid, scientists reprted n Octber 6 in Matter. The wrk is the latest in a decades-lng pursuit f creating fibers as strng, lightweight and bidegradable as spider silk. If scientists can mass-prduce such material, the ptential uses will range frm the bimedical t the athletic. Sewing (缝) up wunds, even sprting equipment culd get a significant imprvement.
“Hunting fr enugh silky material t make these super strng prducts has been a big barrier. Silk frm silkwrms is simple t harvest, but nt all that strng. And spider silk, the gld-standard fr hand-spun strength and tughness, is nt exactly easy t cllect. Unlike silkwrms, spiders cannt be farmed due t their nature,” wrte study cauthr Zhi Lin, a structural bilgist at Tianjin University.
“Scientists arund the wrld have tried t spin (编织) strng strands in the lab using silkwrm ccns. The first step is t take ff the silk’s sticky uter cating. Scientists can d this by biling the fibers in a chemical bath, but that can be like taking a knife t silk prteins. If the prteins get t damaged, it’s hard fr scientists t respin them int high-quality strands,” said Chris Hlland, a materials scientist at the University f Sheffield.
Lin’s team tried gentler appraches, ne f which used lwer temperatures and a papaya enzyme (木瓜酵素), t help disslve (溶解) the silk’s cating. That seemed t wrk. They dn’t have little pieces f silk prtein. That’s huge because the bigger the prteins that remain, the strnger the fibers are ging t be. After sme prcessing steps, the researchers bathed the pressed silk in a slutin cntaining zinc and irn ins (锌铁离子).That was why sme f the strands were s strng — Lin’s team detected zinc ins in the finished fibers.
But Hlland wasn’t s sure. “The team’s real innvatin may be that they’ve managed t untwist silk in a less damaging way. The silk prtein remains in a gd state,” he said, “In my mind, that’s a majr step frward.”
8. Why is creating super strng silk wrth the lng-time pursuit?
A. It can be mass-prduced.B. It prmtes athletic training.
C. It might have wide applicatins.D. It is ptentially envirnmentally friendly.
9. What makes it hard t cllect desirable natural silk accrding t Lin?
A. The pr harvest f silkwrm silk.B. The lw quality f spider silk.
C. The absence f silkwrm data.D. The insufficient supply f spider silk.
10. Hw did Lin’s team make the silk fiber strng?
A. By enhancing its prtein.B. By bathing it in metallic liquid.
C. By remving its cating.D. By squeezing it firmly in a tube.
11. In what aspect did Lin’s team make a breakthrugh accrding t Hlland?
A. Prcessing silk in a safer methd.B. Mass-prducing silk.
C. Creating silk f superir quality.D. Analyzing silk scientifically.
D
Imagine being able t g t yur lcal park and pick sme tmates ptates r even bananas t take hme fr dinner. Sunds t gd t be true, right? Fr residents f Andernach, a German city, it’s nt just a Utpian dream — it’s their reality. In 2010, Andernach began its “edible city” prject, planting 101 varieties f tmates in public green spaces arund the city centre. Its 30,000 residents are free t help themselves t whatever grws, as are any ther visitrs. Every year a new type f plant is intrduced. In 2011, 100 types f beans were planted, while 2012 saw the intrductin f 20 nin varieties. The twn’s mtt (座右铭) is, “Picking is encuraged — help yurself!”
It’s a cmmunity effrt, as lcal citizens are encuraged t help plant and maintain the gardens. This ffers an pprtunity t scialize as well as t learn abut planting, cultivating and harvesting fd. “I ften drp by t pick sme herbs that I’m missing at hme. Everything is easily accessible. There aren’t any fences. Yu just take what yu need. The nly thing is yu have t be quick nce the fruits are ripe r they’ll all be gne!” said a lcal histrian.
Andernach may be the first, but it isn’t the nly edible city. It’s part f the Edible Cities Netwrk, an EU-funded prject cnnecting green urban fd initiatives (倡议) arund the wrld. Other edible cities include Carthage in Tunisia, Havana in Cuba and Šempeter-Vrtjba in Slvenia. In February 2022, the first Edible Cities Netwrk Cnference tk place. Dr. Ina Säumel, Principal Investigatr f the Edible Cities Netwrk, called it, “a unique pprtunity t invite researchers and practitiners (从业人员) f Edible City Slutins t the same table and unite thery with practice”.
Ultimately, the Edible Cities Netwrk aims t create “greener, mre edible and, abve all, mre livable cities”. It is a respnse t the pressures f climate change, and a cause fr hpe.
12. What is paragraph 1 mainly abut?
A. The prcess f Andernach’s grwth.
B. The green fd prject in Andernach.
C. Methds f planting vegetables in Eurpe.
D. The ppularity f Andernach’s city design.
13. What is the attitude f the lcal histrian mentined in paragraph 2 twards the prject?
A. Dubtful.B. Indifferent.
C. Psitive.D. Negative.
14. What can be inferred frm paragraph 3?
A. Green urban fd has drawn mre attentin.
B. German rural areas will fllw the trend t.
C. Asia will jin the Edible Cities Netwrk sn.
D. Edible cities hld meetings n a regular base.
15. Which f the fllwing culd be the best title fr the text?
A. Start a Green Fd Campaign Nw
B. Gain Easy Access t German Fd
C. Quick Respnse t Climate Change
D. An Incredible “Edible City” Initiative
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Hw t Deal with a Rmmate Wh Is Incnsiderate
Des yur rmmate brrw yur stuff withut asking, r leave dirty dishes in the sink fr weeks? ____16____, but dn’t wrry — by having an pen, hnest talk with him/her, yu can find a slutin and make yur huse a hme again.
Tackling the prblem nw will keep it frm wrsening in the backgrund.
It might seem easier t ignre yur rmmate’s prblems fr nw. ____17____. Ask yur rmmate t sit dwn and have a chat with yu sn, r schedule a huse meeting a few days in advance.
Aviding accusatins (指责) will help yu have a mre prductive cnversatin.
____18____. — yu can be specific, but try nt t attack r blame yur rmmate. That way, yu tw can have an pen, hnest discussin, rather than an argument.
____19____.
Once yu’ve said yur piece abut yur living situatin, take a step back and really listen t yur rmmate’s pint f view. Try nt t interrupt. If yur rmmate gets defensive r angry, try saying smething like, “I understand yu’re upset, but I’d really like us t make a change tgether.”
If yu bth make the rules, yur rmmate is mre likely t fllw them.
After yu’ve bth shared yur issues, d sme brainstrming tgether n what culd be changed arund yur place. Keep an pen mind and be willing t cmprmise (妥协，让步) s that everyne ends up happier. ____20____.
A. Spending time tgether is necessary
B. It’s bad manners t criticize yur rmmate
C. Bring up whatever is bthering yu carefully
D. Hwever, it’s better t face these things head-n
E. Give him/her time t talk s he/she desn’t feel attacked
F. The rules yu make tgether are mre persuasive fr yur rmmate
G. Living with an incnsiderate rmmate might make yu feel frustrated
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Stephanie distinctly remembered watching a basketball mvie called “Like Mike” when she was a kid. The mvie’s message ____21____ her, s she shwed it t her students while discussing ____22____ and inclusin (包容).
Over the curse f a term, Stephanie did a weeks-lng lessn abut hw ur differences make us ____23____, and hw we shuldn’t judge peple until we’ve “walked a mile in their shes”. The mvie helped ____24____ this message t her students’ real lives.
Stephanie had her students measure their feet in class, design their wn ____25____ n paper, and write jurnals abut making ____26____ abut thers based n appearances. Since Stephanie cllects athletic shes as a srt f hbby, she began wrking behind the scenes t make the final lessn in her plan, smething her students wuld never ____27____.
Withut telling them, Stephanie ____28____ a pair f white sneakers (运动鞋) fr every student in her class. She paid fr it all ut f her wn pcket, but as csts ____29____, she eventually asked her cmmunity fr dnatins.
On the day f the big ____30____, Stephanie pened the bxes f sneakers. The kids went ____31____ ! Sme f them even cried. Each student decrated their ____32____ shes with their wn sense f style. They had fun making their shes n their wn, and the deeper ____33____ was nt lst n them.
As Stephanie put it, “Differences make everybdy special!” This is such a(n) ____34____ way t teach kids the value f nt judging thers and creativity. We hpe mre teachers ____35____ her path and create significant lessns like this ne!
21. A. struckB. puzzledC. disappintedD. benefited
22. A. patienceB. diversityC. friendshipD. creativity
23. A. necessaryB. rdinaryC. strangeD. unique
24. A. understandB. relateC. devteD. cntribute
25. A. shesB. clthingC. prjectsD. mvies
26. A. arrangementsB. instructinsC. cmplaintsD. judgments
27. A. prmiseB. ignreC. finishD. frget
28 A. designedB. bughtC. cllectedD. washed
29. A. used upB. went utC. added upD. gave ut
30. A. disclsureB. challengeC. dnatinD. chice
31. A. blindB. quietC. wildD. wrng
32. A. differentB. familiarC. newD. clrful
33. A. changeB. causeC. lessnD. regret
34. A. fantasticB. fficialC. ridiculusD. tugh
35. A. crssB. blckC. chseD. fllw
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Brn in 1852, Antni Gaudí devted his life t architecture. He was ne f the leaders and the mst famus representatives f Catalan Mdernism.
Gaudí was famus fr his unique way f ____36____ (design) buildings. He wuld never use plans r technical drawings fr his prjects. Instead, he wuld make scale mdels. That apprach is ____37____ (understand) when we knw he was mainly influenced by nature fr his buildings. If the pillar (柱子) ____38____ (lk) like a tree, it’s easier t mdel it than ____39____ (make) an architectural drawing f it. Gaudí fcused n every detail in his wrk and designed everything frm furniture t decratin. He invented ____40____ unique technique, in which he used waste ceramic (陶瓷) pieces and made decratins with them. During his career, Antni Gaudí, ____41____ inspiratin was frm nature, mainly wrked in the Catalan Mdernism style.
Gaudí died n June 10th 1926. Since 2013, that date has been celebrated ____42____ Wrld Art Nuveau Day. After his death, Gaudí’s wrk was first criticized. ____43____, arund the mid-20th century, his legacy (遗产) gt praised by artists such as Salvadr Dali. In 1957, Gaudí’s first internatinal ____44____ (exhibit) was rganized at MOMA in New Yrk. S far tday, seven f his wrks _____45_____ (declare) Wrld Heritage Sites by UNESCO.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 从以下12个单词中选择语义适当的10个单词，填入与之匹配的语句中。（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
选词填空
46. Tu Yuyu, a __________ and patient scientist, was brn in Ningb, China.
47. Jane has made __________ prgress in Chinese with teacher’s help and her wn hard wrk.
48. __________, Quan Hngchan is ne f the mst talented divers in China.
49. These smart hmes will keep us __________, save us energy and prvide a mre cmfrtable envirnment t live in.
50. I have such a gd __________ f English that Lcan intrduce Chinese culture t visitrs in English.
51. It’s a gd idea t chse anther destinatin in case yur first-chice turist spt is nt __________.
52. With vlunteers __________ her during the festival, the ld lady felt happier.
53. The rain had stpped and a star r tw was __________ ver the muntains.
54. The crucial thing is using bdy language in a way that is __________ t the culture yu are in.
55. The plice fund the __________ t the accident.
第二节 根据所给提示翻译下列句子（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
56. 一回到家，他就开始写作业。（upn ding）（汉译英）
57. 中国运动员在杭州亚运会中赢得了201块金牌，这使我们很兴奋。（at the Asian Games in Hangzhu，gld medals，which引导定语从句）（汉译英）
58. 尽管我有点失落，但是我会努力说服自己保持微笑。（persuade sb. t d）（汉译英）
59. 政府呼吁公众保护我们的环境。（appeal t）（汉译英）
60. 我不赞成在公共场合吸烟。（apprve f）（汉译英）
第三节 应用文写作（满分15分）
61. 假定你是高中生李华。你校将于下周邀请专家做“中国传统文化之美”主题讲座。请你写封邮件邀请你校交换生 Angela听讲座。要点如下：
1.发出邀请;
2.具体介绍(讲座时间、地点及主要内容等);
3.表达期望。
注意：1.字数80词左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;
3.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Angela,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Huaapparently apprpriate remarkable cmmitted available gradually
accmpanying witness visible cmmand secure warning
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What des Michelle want t d?
A．Have dinner B．D her hmewrk. C．Write a thank-yu nte.
2．What will the speakers d this weekend?
A．G t Disneyland. B．Visit a museum. C．Write an article.
3．When did the wman cme t the US?
A．In 1973. B．In 1975. C．In 1977.
4．Hw is prbably the weather tday?
A．Warm. B．Ht. C．Wet.
5．What are the speakers talking abut?
A．A TV shw. B．The man’s hbby. C．Wildlife prtectin.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What did Jasn think f Karen’s fd?
A．Delicius. B．Unhealthy. C．Terrible.
7．What des the wman suggest Jasn d?
A．Observe the bees. B．Have sme ice cream. C．Study English slang.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What is the man’s plan fr the weekend?
A．Attending a wedding. B．Ging t a party. C．Watching a film.
9．Why will the wman thrw a party this Saturday?
A．Fr huse-warming. B．Fr her birthday. C．Fr a prmtin.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10．What can kids d thrugh Bryan’s Facebk page?
A．Listen t stries. B．Chat with friends. C．Enjy nice phts.
11．Wh inspired Bryan t start a Facebk page?
A．His father. B．His mther. C．His grandmther.
12．What des Bryan want the wman t d?
A．Jin him in reading stries. B．Recrd kids’ daily life. C．Spend mre time with kids.
第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．Where might Henry be when he smelled sme smke?
A．In the yard. B．In the kitchen. C．In the living rm.
14．Wh called 911?
A．Henry. B．A bystander. C．The guy in the burning huse.
15．Hw many peple ran int the burning huse?
A．1. B．2. C．3.
16．What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A．Brther and sister. B．Clleagues. C．Interviewer and interviewee.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Hw ld is the speaker’s brther?
A．15. B．19. C．20.
18．What is the speaker’s mther?
A．A plice fficer. B．A nurse. C．A firefighter.
19．Why is it hard fr the speaker t see her brther nw?
A．Her brther has been infected with COVID-19.
B．Her brther is in islatin （隔离） because f COVID-19.
C．Her brther is busy helping fight against COVID-19.
20．What des the speaker decide t d in the future?
A．Help mre peple like her brther.
B．Spend mre time with family.
C．Study in a plice training schl.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Discver hw yu can help endangered species! Vlunteer t help cnserve endangered species arund the wrld with GEc.
Sea turtles, Sri Lanka
The species is threatened by human hunters. The Sri Lankan gvernment has apprved the creatin f hatcheries (孵化场) in rder t prtect this species. Vlunteers n this prgram spend 60% f their time wrking in the hatchery and the ther 40% is spent n activities such as beach cleanups and creating awareness within the lcal cmmunity.
Prgram Fees: $1280 fr 2 weeks and $1,680 per mnth fr vlunteers.
Wildlife Rescue, Western Australia
Adult kangars and wallabies are hunted fr fd, leaving thusands f their babies withut parents. Many are killed r injured in rad accidents. At the wildlife rescue center in Perth, Western Australia, vlunteers live and help in the bushland caring fr sick, injured, and displaced animals.
Prgram Fee: $2,095 fr fur weeks. Vlunteers stay n-site in a small rm. Due t very limited space, applicatins must be sent at least 9-12 mnths in advance.
Endangered Species Reserve, Suth Africa
The prject will give yu an incredible wildlife experience while learning abut cnservatin effrts. Fr the rest f the time between mnitring sessins, vlunteers are required t enter all the data that they have cllected int ur databases. At times, vlunteers need t perate n night shifts. We als give lectures and presentatins ver the lunch perid.
Prgram Fee: $1,750 fr 2 weeks
Big Cat Refuge Suth Africa
As a vlunteer n this prject, yu will be invlved in a wide variety f activities. Vlunteer’s wrk ranges frm enrichment activities, such as ty-making and farm wrk, t educating the visitrs. Vlunteers will als directly care fr the cats by preparing fd r feeding them as well as maintaining their living space.
Prgram Fee: $1,450 fr 2 weeks
1. What is the mnthly prject fee fr vlunteers in Sri Lanka?
A. $1,280.B. $1,680.C. $2,560.D. $2,960.
2. What is required f vlunteers fr the prject in Western Australia?
A. Having previus experience.
B. Wrking night shifts smetimes.
C. Applying fr the prject in advance.
D. Having a gd knwledge f wildlife.
3. What can vlunteers d fr the prject Big Cat Refuge?
A. Study the habits f big cats.
B. Help t sell sme tys abut cats.
C. Guide visitrs t the habitat f the cats.
D. D daily rutines in the cats’ living space.
B
A mther f nine wh started medical schl when her yungest child was 4 years ld graduated with her degree and plans t be a neursurgen (神经外科医生).
Sarah Merrill, nw 41, said her jurney t medical schl began at age 17. She then met her husband and gt married. Merrill first thught abut ging t schl part-time t get a degree, but later she decided t fllw her dream f attending medical schl. Certainly, it was a challenge. Speaking f her successfully returning t university, Merrill thught it was credited t her family largely. “When I was accepted at May Clinic Alix Schl f Medicine, we mved frm Pennsylvania t Arizna,” said Merrill, wh is mving t Indiana with her family t begin her residency (实习期) in neursurgery. “In fact, they vlunteered these mvements. I knw it was tugh fr all f us.”
Merrill and her children ften have “hmewrk parties” where they study fr their wn curses. Merrill’s chice has given a stimulus t her children. Merrill felt tuched knwing her 11-year-ld daughter wants t becme a surgen and verhearing her sn tell his friends his mm’s ging t be a cl brain surgen, thugh he desn’t understand that really.
Merrill’s next step int a neursurgery residency will take her int a male-dminated field where nly 5% f bard certified neursurgens are wmen. Dr. Michele Halyard at May Clinic Alix Schl f Medicine said Merrill was knwn as a fcused student. Halyard said, “If yu can deal with nine children and keep yur reasn, the residency shuld be a piece f cake because n amunt f stress will make yu fail.”
Merrill had cnsidered chsing a mre family-friendly specialty, but, again, chse t dream big and fllw her riginal pursuit. It’s the same advice she wuld give t all. “Set the gal that is what yu’re really enthusiastic abut, and it helps t think small. If yu knw what yur pririties are, fcus n the next step. Then yu’ll get where yu want t g.”
4. Why des Merrill speak f their mvements?
A. T shw the supprt f her family.
B. T stress her determinatin t be a dctr.
C. T reflect difficulties in attending cllege.
D. T describe the prcess f pursuing her dream.
5. What des the underlined wrd “stimulus” mean in paragraph 3?
A. Entertainment.B. Inspiratin.
C. Cmmitment.D. Cnfusin.
6. What des Halyard mean in paragraph 4?
A. Merrill will have mre stress t handle.
B. Staying fcused and sensible is key t success.
C. Being Mm makes Merrill a better dctr.
D. She is cnfident f Merrill’s being a neursurgen.
7. What des Merrill suggest at last?
A. Starting with small things.
B. Getting yur pririties right.
C. Being true t yur passin.
D. Having the curage t dream big.
C
Giving silkwrm silk a metallic bath may make the strands (丝线) bth strng and slid, scientists reprted n Octber 6 in Matter. The wrk is the latest in a decades-lng pursuit f creating fibers as strng, lightweight and bidegradable as spider silk. If scientists can mass-prduce such material, the ptential uses will range frm the bimedical t the athletic. Sewing (缝) up wunds, even sprting equipment culd get a significant imprvement.
“Hunting fr enugh silky material t make these super strng prducts has been a big barrier. Silk frm silkwrms is simple t harvest, but nt all that strng. And spider silk, the gld-standard fr hand-spun strength and tughness, is nt exactly easy t cllect. Unlike silkwrms, spiders cannt be farmed due t their nature,” wrte study cauthr Zhi Lin, a structural bilgist at Tianjin University.
“Scientists arund the wrld have tried t spin (编织) strng strands in the lab using silkwrm ccns. The first step is t take ff the silk’s sticky uter cating. Scientists can d this by biling the fibers in a chemical bath, but that can be like taking a knife t silk prteins. If the prteins get t damaged, it’s hard fr scientists t respin them int high-quality strands,” said Chris Hlland, a materials scientist at the University f Sheffield.
Lin’s team tried gentler appraches, ne f which used lwer temperatures and a papaya enzyme (木瓜酵素), t help disslve (溶解) the silk’s cating. That seemed t wrk. They dn’t have little pieces f silk prtein. That’s huge because the bigger the prteins that remain, the strnger the fibers are ging t be. After sme prcessing steps, the researchers bathed the pressed silk in a slutin cntaining zinc and irn ins (锌铁离子).That was why sme f the strands were s strng — Lin’s team detected zinc ins in the finished fibers.
But Hlland wasn’t s sure. “The team’s real innvatin may be that they’ve managed t untwist silk in a less damaging way. The silk prtein remains in a gd state,” he said, “In my mind, that’s a majr step frward.”
8. Why is creating super strng silk wrth the lng-time pursuit?
A. It can be mass-prduced.B. It prmtes athletic training.
C. It might have wide applicatins.D. It is ptentially envirnmentally friendly.
9. What makes it hard t cllect desirable natural silk accrding t Lin?
A. The pr harvest f silkwrm silk.B. The lw quality f spider silk.
C. The absence f silkwrm data.D. The insufficient supply f spider silk.
10. Hw did Lin’s team make the silk fiber strng?
A. By enhancing its prtein.B. By bathing it in metallic liquid.
C. By remving its cating.D. By squeezing it firmly in a tube.
11. In what aspect did Lin’s team make a breakthrugh accrding t Hlland?
A. Prcessing silk in a safer methd.B. Mass-prducing silk.
C. Creating silk f superir quality.D. Analyzing silk scientifically.
D
Imagine being able t g t yur lcal park and pick sme tmates ptates r even bananas t take hme fr dinner. Sunds t gd t be true, right? Fr residents f Andernach, a German city, it’s nt just a Utpian dream — it’s their reality. In 2010, Andernach began its “edible city” prject, planting 101 varieties f tmates in public green spaces arund the city centre. Its 30,000 residents are free t help themselves t whatever grws, as are any ther visitrs. Every year a new type f plant is intrduced. In 2011, 100 types f beans were planted, while 2012 saw the intrductin f 20 nin varieties. The twn’s mtt (座右铭) is, “Picking is encuraged — help yurself!”
It’s a cmmunity effrt, as lcal citizens are encuraged t help plant and maintain the gardens. This ffers an pprtunity t scialize as well as t learn abut planting, cultivating and harvesting fd. “I ften drp by t pick sme herbs that I’m missing at hme. Everything is easily accessible. There aren’t any fences. Yu just take what yu need. The nly thing is yu have t be quick nce the fruits are ripe r they’ll all be gne!” said a lcal histrian.
Andernach may be the first, but it isn’t the nly edible city. It’s part f the Edible Cities Netwrk, an EU-funded prject cnnecting green urban fd initiatives (倡议) arund the wrld. Other edible cities include Carthage in Tunisia, Havana in Cuba and Šempeter-Vrtjba in Slvenia. In February 2022, the first Edible Cities Netwrk Cnference tk place. Dr. Ina Säumel, Principal Investigatr f the Edible Cities Netwrk, called it, “a unique pprtunity t invite researchers and practitiners (从业人员) f Edible City Slutins t the same table and unite thery with practice”.
Ultimately, the Edible Cities Netwrk aims t create “greener, mre edible and, abve all, mre livable cities”. It is a respnse t the pressures f climate change, and a cause fr hpe.
12. What is paragraph 1 mainly abut?
A. The prcess f Andernach’s grwth.
B. The green fd prject in Andernach.
C. Methds f planting vegetables in Eurpe.
D. The ppularity f Andernach’s city design.
13. What is the attitude f the lcal histrian mentined in paragraph 2 twards the prject?
A. Dubtful.B. Indifferent.
C. Psitive.D. Negative.
14. What can be inferred frm paragraph 3?
A. Green urban fd has drawn mre attentin.
B. German rural areas will fllw the trend t.
C. Asia will jin the Edible Cities Netwrk sn.
D. Edible cities hld meetings n a regular base.
15. Which f the fllwing culd be the best title fr the text?
A. Start a Green Fd Campaign Nw
B. Gain Easy Access t German Fd
C. Quick Respnse t Climate Change
D. An Incredible “Edible City” Initiative
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Hw t Deal with a Rmmate Wh Is Incnsiderate
Des yur rmmate brrw yur stuff withut asking, r leave dirty dishes in the sink fr weeks? ____16____, but dn’t wrry — by having an pen, hnest talk with him/her, yu can find a slutin and make yur huse a hme again.
Tackling the prblem nw will keep it frm wrsening in the backgrund.
It might seem easier t ignre yur rmmate’s prblems fr nw. ____17____. Ask yur rmmate t sit dwn and have a chat with yu sn, r schedule a huse meeting a few days in advance.
Aviding accusatins (指责) will help yu have a mre prductive cnversatin.
____18____. — yu can be specific, but try nt t attack r blame yur rmmate. That way, yu tw can have an pen, hnest discussin, rather than an argument.
____19____.
Once yu’ve said yur piece abut yur living situatin, take a step back and really listen t yur rmmate’s pint f view. Try nt t interrupt. If yur rmmate gets defensive r angry, try saying smething like, “I understand yu’re upset, but I’d really like us t make a change tgether.”
If yu bth make the rules, yur rmmate is mre likely t fllw them.
After yu’ve bth shared yur issues, d sme brainstrming tgether n what culd be changed arund yur place. Keep an pen mind and be willing t cmprmise (妥协，让步) s that everyne ends up happier. ____20____.
A. Spending time tgether is necessary
B. It’s bad manners t criticize yur rmmate
C. Bring up whatever is bthering yu carefully
D. Hwever, it’s better t face these things head-n
E. Give him/her time t talk s he/she desn’t feel attacked
F. The rules yu make tgether are mre persuasive fr yur rmmate
G. Living with an incnsiderate rmmate might make yu feel frustrated
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Stephanie distinctly remembered watching a basketball mvie called “Like Mike” when she was a kid. The mvie’s message ____21____ her, s she shwed it t her students while discussing ____22____ and inclusin (包容).
Over the curse f a term, Stephanie did a weeks-lng lessn abut hw ur differences make us ____23____, and hw we shuldn’t judge peple until we’ve “walked a mile in their shes”. The mvie helped ____24____ this message t her students’ real lives.
Stephanie had her students measure their feet in class, design their wn ____25____ n paper, and write jurnals abut making ____26____ abut thers based n appearances. Since Stephanie cllects athletic shes as a srt f hbby, she began wrking behind the scenes t make the final lessn in her plan, smething her students wuld never ____27____.
Withut telling them, Stephanie ____28____ a pair f white sneakers (运动鞋) fr every student in her class. She paid fr it all ut f her wn pcket, but as csts ____29____, she eventually asked her cmmunity fr dnatins.
On the day f the big ____30____, Stephanie pened the bxes f sneakers. The kids went ____31____ ! Sme f them even cried. Each student decrated their ____32____ shes with their wn sense f style. They had fun making their shes n their wn, and the deeper ____33____ was nt lst n them.
As Stephanie put it, “Differences make everybdy special!” This is such a(n) ____34____ way t teach kids the value f nt judging thers and creativity. We hpe mre teachers ____35____ her path and create significant lessns like this ne!
21. A. struckB. puzzledC. disappintedD. benefited
22. A. patienceB. diversityC. friendshipD. creativity
23. A. necessaryB. rdinaryC. strangeD. unique
24. A. understandB. relateC. devteD. cntribute
25. A. shesB. clthingC. prjectsD. mvies
26. A. arrangementsB. instructinsC. cmplaintsD. judgments
27. A. prmiseB. ignreC. finishD. frget
28 A. designedB. bughtC. cllectedD. washed
29. A. used upB. went utC. added upD. gave ut
30. A. disclsureB. challengeC. dnatinD. chice
31. A. blindB. quietC. wildD. wrng
32. A. differentB. familiarC. newD. clrful
33. A. changeB. causeC. lessnD. regret
34. A. fantasticB. fficialC. ridiculusD. tugh
35. A. crssB. blckC. chseD. fllw
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Brn in 1852, Antni Gaudí devted his life t architecture. He was ne f the leaders and the mst famus representatives f Catalan Mdernism.
Gaudí was famus fr his unique way f ____36____ (design) buildings. He wuld never use plans r technical drawings fr his prjects. Instead, he wuld make scale mdels. That apprach is ____37____ (understand) when we knw he was mainly influenced by nature fr his buildings. If the pillar (柱子) ____38____ (lk) like a tree, it’s easier t mdel it than ____39____ (make) an architectural drawing f it. Gaudí fcused n every detail in his wrk and designed everything frm furniture t decratin. He invented ____40____ unique technique, in which he used waste ceramic (陶瓷) pieces and made decratins with them. During his career, Antni Gaudí, ____41____ inspiratin was frm nature, mainly wrked in the Catalan Mdernism style.
Gaudí died n June 10th 1926. Since 2013, that date has been celebrated ____42____ Wrld Art Nuveau Day. After his death, Gaudí’s wrk was first criticized. ____43____, arund the mid-20th century, his legacy (遗产) gt praised by artists such as Salvadr Dali. In 1957, Gaudí’s first internatinal ____44____ (exhibit) was rganized at MOMA in New Yrk. S far tday, seven f his wrks _____45_____ (declare) Wrld Heritage Sites by UNESCO.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 从以下12个单词中选择语义适当的10个单词，填入与之匹配的语句中。（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
选词填空
46. Tu Yuyu, a __________ and patient scientist, was brn in Ningb, China.
47. Jane has made __________ prgress in Chinese with teacher’s help and her wn hard wrk.
48. __________, Quan Hngchan is ne f the mst talented divers in China.
49. These smart hmes will keep us __________, save us energy and prvide a mre cmfrtable envirnment t live in.
50. I have such a gd __________ f English that Lcan intrduce Chinese culture t visitrs in English.
51. It’s a gd idea t chse anther destinatin in case yur first-chice turist spt is nt __________.
52. With vlunteers __________ her during the festival, the ld lady felt happier.
53. The rain had stpped and a star r tw was __________ ver the muntains.
54. The crucial thing is using bdy language in a way that is __________ t the culture yu are in.
55. The plice fund the __________ t the accident.
第二节 根据所给提示翻译下列句子（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
56. 一回到家，他就开始写作业。（upn ding）（汉译英）
57. 中国运动员在杭州亚运会中赢得了201块金牌，这使我们很兴奋。（at the Asian Games in Hangzhu，gld medals，which引导定语从句）（汉译英）
58. 尽管我有点失落，但是我会努力说服自己保持微笑。（persuade sb. t d）（汉译英）
59. 政府呼吁公众保护我们的环境。（appeal t）（汉译英）
60. 我不赞成在公共场合吸烟。（apprve f）（汉译英）
第三节 应用文写作（满分15分）
61. 假定你是高中生李华。你校将于下周邀请专家做“中国传统文化之美”主题讲座。请你写封邮件邀请你校交换生 Angela听讲座。要点如下：
1.发出邀请;
2.具体介绍(讲座时间、地点及主要内容等);
3.表达期望。
注意：1.字数80词左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;
3.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Angela,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Huaapparently apprpriate remarkable cmmitted available gradually
accmpanying witness visible cmmand secure warning
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