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    2022-2023学年广东省茂名市高州市外研版(三起)六年级下学期7月期末英语试卷(含听力音频)
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    2022-2023学年广东省茂名市高州市外研版(三起)六年级下学期7月期末英语试卷(含听力音频)01
    2022-2023学年广东省茂名市高州市外研版(三起)六年级下学期7月期末英语试卷(含听力音频)02
    2022-2023学年广东省茂名市高州市外研版(三起)六年级下学期7月期末英语试卷(含听力音频)03
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    2022-2023学年广东省茂名市高州市外研版(三起)六年级下学期7月期末英语试卷(含听力音频)

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    这是一份2022-2023学年广东省茂名市高州市外研版(三起)六年级下学期7月期末英语试卷(含听力音频),共8页。试卷主要包含了听句子,选择你听到的单词或词组,听句子,选择合适的答句,听对话,回答问题,听句子,填入所缺的单词,选择填空,根据实际回答问题等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    (满分100分,60分钟内完成)
    说明:全部答案必须在答题卡完成,写在试卷上无效。
    听力部分(40分)
    一、听句子,选择你听到的单词或词组。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 1. A. hurryB. angryC. hungry
    ( ) 2. A. walkB. wrkC. talk
    ( ) 3. A. be quickB. be quietC. a quarter
    ( ) 4. A. prud fB. afraid fC. mre abut
    ( ) 5. A. mapsB. flagsC. stamps
    二、听句子,选择与句子意思相符的图片。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 6. A. B. C.
    ( ) 7. A. B. C.
    ( ) 8. A. B. C.
    ( ) 9. A. B. C.
    ( ) 10. A. B. C.
    三、听句子,选择合适的答句。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 11. A. Yes, I d.B. Yes, please.C. N, I’m nt.
    ( ) 12. A. What’s this?B. N, I dn’t like it.C. Thank yu! I like it. .
    ( ) 13. A. I want t buy a new T-shirt.B. Yes, I can.C. Please dn’t cry.
    ( ) 14. A. I’m srry fr that.B. Great!C. Where is it?
    ( ) 15. A. We shuld g.B. We shuld wait.C. We shuld stp.
    四、听对话,回答问题。(共10分,每小题1分)
    听第一段对话,回答第16小题。
    ( ) 16. What clur is the cap?
    A. It’s yellw.B. It’s blue.C. It’s red.
    听第二段对话,回答第17小题。
    ( ) 17. What are they ging t d?
    A. They’re ging t swim.B. They’re ging t sleep.C. It’s s ht.
    听第三段对话,回答第18小题。
    ( ) 18. What will they d?
    A. They will make a cake.B. They will make a kite.C. They will make a card.
    听第四段对话,回答第19小题。
    ( ) 19. They dn’t knw wh the girl is, why?
    A. Because the girl is under the tree.
    B. Because the girl isn’t their friend.
    C. Because they can’t see the girl’s face.
    听第五段对话,回答第20至21小题。
    ( ) 20. What did she give t Sam?
    A. A bk.B. A mdel spaceship.C. A pen.
    ( ) 21. What des Sam want t d smeday?
    A. He wants t be a taiknaut smeday.
    B. He wants t g arund the wrld smeday.
    C. He wants t g int space smeday.
    听第六段对话,回答第22至23小题。
    ( ) 22. What day is it tday?
    A. SundayB. Mnday.C. Sprts day.
    ( ) 23. Why desn’t Sam g t schl tday?
    A. Because he’s gt a stmach ache.
    B. Because he’s gt a head ache.
    C. Because he ate fur sandwiches.
    听第七段对话,回答第24至25小题。
    ( ) 24. Where did he g?
    A. He went t China.B. He went t England.C. He went t visit grandparents.
    ( ) 25. Why des the Great Wall lk like a dragn?
    A. Because it’s lng and strng.
    B. Because it’s ld.
    C. Because it’s in the muntain.
    五、听句子,填入所缺的单词。(共10分,每个空格1分)
    26. —On my birthday, Simn __________ me a present. Lk! It’s a red pen.
    —Ww, hw nice! But yu’ve __________ three red pens.
    —Yes, but I like this ne best.
    27. —What did he d in his birthday party?
    —He __________ the flute fr three __________.
    —He plays the flute very well.
    —Yu’re right. His friends like listening t the flute.
    28. —__________ are yu laughing?
    —Because I’m. The actr is telling jkes
    29. —Oh dear! The ballns are __________ away. Wh can __________ me?
    —Srry, I can’t. The ballns are in the sky nw.
    30. —It will __________ tmrrw. We can’t have a picnic
    —What a pity! But __________ shall we g?
    —We will g next week. The weather reprt says it will be sunny.
    六、听短文,判断对错,对的涂T,错的涂F。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 31. Amy is ging t the middle schl in the UK.
    ( ) 32. Daming and Lingling are Amy’s gd friends.
    ( ) 33. Lake Middle Schl is in China.
    ( ) 34. Amy can speak lts f Chinese nw.
    ( ) 35. Amy is sad t say gdbye t her friends, she will miss them.
    笔试部分(60分)
    七、读例词,从括号里找出含有例词划线部分相同发音的单词,并填在横线上。注意:每道题有多余选项。(共5分,每个空格0.5分)
    36. name, __________, __________ (snake, panda, plane, pad)
    37. desk, __________, __________ (she, check, we, red)
    38. bike, __________, __________ (hike, white, pick, chip)
    39. nse, __________, __________ (lst, thse, rse, bss)
    40. blue, __________, __________ (flute, bus, busy, rule)
    八、选择填空。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 41. —I’m ging t study Chemistry and Gegraphy in __________.
    —Yes. It will be interesting.
    A. middle schlB. primary schlC. meet friends
    ( ) 42. —Lk, Shenzhu Ⅴ! It spent abut __________ in space and did a lt f wrk there.
    —Wnderful!
    A. 21 hursB. 23 hursC. 12 hurs
    ( ) 43. —Helen culdn’t see r hear, she was __________. . But she learnt t read, write and speak. She wrte a bk abut herself and travelled all ver the wrld.
    —She is a rle mdel fr us.
    A. hungry and prB. ld and weakC. blind and deaf
    ( ) 44. —Hell, Xiayng! Where are yu ging?
    —Hell, Fangfang! I’m ging t the airprt. I’ll g t Beijing.
    —Cl! __________.
    A. Safe trip.B. Hurry up.C. Thank yu.
    ( ) 45. The Dragn Bat Festival is ne f the traditinal festivals f __________.
    A. ChinaB. AmericaC. England
    九、根据图片或开头字母提示完成句子,每个空格填写一个单词,要注意使用正确的形式。(共10分,每个空格1分)
    46. Daming lves t__________ phts, he has gt a gd camera. He ften t__________ phts f me.
    47. She’s d__________ exercise, but it gets t h__________.
    48. —Apples, pairs, bananas… S many f__________! Hw m__________ are they?
    —Thirty-five yuan.
    49. He’s __________ a bk, but his sister starts t __________.
    50. —__________ des yur mther d?
    —She’s a __________. She teaches English.
    十、根据实际回答问题。(共10分,每小题2分)
    51. D yu have a pen friend?
    _____________________________________________________________________.
    52. What’s yur favurite subject (科目)? Why?
    _____________________________________________________________________.
    53. What will yu d in yur summer hlidays?
    _____________________________________________________________________.
    54. What time d yu g t schl every mrning?
    _____________________________________________________________________.
    55. What husewrk (家务) can yu d?
    _____________________________________________________________________.
    十一、语篇阅读。
    A
    Grandma Jia: Oh, my dear little girl. Welcme t this big family. This is a welcme party fr yu.
    Bayu: Ww! This beautiful girl is an angel. She isn’t my aunt’s daughter.
    Daiyu: Yes, I am. My name is Daiyu. I knw yu are my uncle’s sn, Bayu.
    Bachai: Hell, Daiyu. I am Bayu’s cusin. My mther’s sister is Bayu’s mther. Let’s be friends.
    Grandma Jia: Great. Yu are all my dear grandchildren. I lve yu all. Let’s have fun.
    根据对话信息选择正确的选项。(共10分,每小题2分)
    ( ) 56. This passage is abut ________.
    A. 《红楼梦》B. 《三国演义》C. 《西游记》
    ( ) 57. Bayu’s father is Daiyu’s ________.
    A. uncleB. brtherC. grandpa
    ( ) 58. Bayu’s mther and Bachai’s mther are ________.
    A. friendsB. sistersC. winners
    ( ) 59. Daiyu is Bayu’s ________.
    A. classmateB. brtherC. cusin
    ( ) 60. Bayu and Daiyu are Grandma Jia’s ________.
    A. grandchildrenB. cusinsC. daughter and sn
    B
    同学们,Daming,Lingling,Amy和Sam陪伴大家度过了四年快乐的时光,还记得这四年他们之间发生的故事吗?让我们一起来回顾吧!
    Daming, Lingling, Amy and Sam are gd friends. They study in the same schl in Beijing and in the same class. Ms Smart is their teacher and als Amy and Sam’s mther. They’re frm the UK. Ms Smart is very kind and they lve her very much.
    Last year Lingling went t Lndn fr her hlidays with Ms Smart’s family. Lingling went t the British Museum, and visited the Big Ben and the Lndn Eye.
    Lingling met a new friend in Lndn, he’s Jhn. But she ran t the bus and drpped her ice-cream n Jhn’s new shes, she was very srry fr that.
    Ms Smart bught a red T-shirt fr Lingling, and a big and light bag, because Lingling’s bag was brken.
    Lingling had lts f fun in the UK.
    Daming went t New Yrk fr his hlidays last year. He went t visit his cusin, Simn. Simn is an American by, but his mther and grandma are Chinese. Simn’s father is American, but he likes China very much. He asked Daming many questins abut China. Daming made a dragn kite fr Simn. Simn likes it very much.
    Daming went t visit the UN building and the Chinatwn, it was fun.
    Daming met a new friend in New Yrk. She’s a girl frm the UK, She’s Laura. Daming gave her Amy and Sam’s address, and nw they are pen friends, they ften write letters t each ther.
    Daming had a big meal with Simn’s family n Thanksgiving Day. Thanksgiving Day is Simn’s favurite festival.
    Daming had a gd time in New Yrk
    These fur children are ging t leave their primary schl and start middle schl this September. They are ging t different schls. Amy and Sam are ging back t the UK, they are very sad t say gdbye t their Chinese friends. They will miss them all, and they will write lts f emails t each ther.
    (一)判断下列信息是否正确,用T(正确)和F(错误)表示。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 61. These fur children study in the same primary schl in Beijing.
    ( ) 62. Ms Smart is Amy and Sam’s mther.
    ( ) 63. Last year Daming went t the UK fr his hlidays.
    ( ) 64. Amy and Sam are frm the UK.
    ( ) 65. These fur children will miss and write emails t each ther.
    (二)根据语篇内容选择正确答案。(共5分,每小题1分)
    ( ) 66. Lingling went t see ________ in Lndn.
    A. the Big BenB. the ChinatwnC. the UN building
    ( ) 67. ________ is Lingling’s new friend in Lndn.
    A. SimnB. LauraC. Jhn
    ( ) 68. Daming made ________ fr Simn last year.
    A. a dragn batB. a dragn kiteC. mdel spaceship
    ( ) 69. Simn’s mther and grandma are ________.
    A. BritishB. AmericanC. Chinese
    ( ) 70. Laura is these fur children’s ________.
    A. pen friendB. sisterC. classmate
    十二、书面表达。(共10分)
    同学们,回顾了Daming,Lingling,Amy和Sam四个小伙伴的故事,你们对同窗六年即将分别的同学、朋友是不是也依依不舍呢?请对你的好朋友说几句心里话,可以是回忆,可以是告别,可以是感谢,也可以是祝福。要求:1、语言丰富、正确,书写规范、美观,不少于40个单词;2、已设定姓名,不出现真实姓名。
    Mingming,




    Xiafang
    高州市2023年六年级期末学业水平测试
    小学六年级英语试卷
    参考答案
    一、A C B A B
    二、A C C B B
    三、B C A A C
    四、B A B C A C B A A A
    五、bught, gt, played, times, Why, happy, flying, help, rain, When
    六、T T F T T
    七、snake, plane, check, red, hike, white, thse, rse, flute, rule
    八、A A C A A
    九、taking, takes, ding, ht, fruits/fruit, much, reading, sing, What, teacher
    十、本题为开放性问题,没有固定答案,可参考以下原则:
    1、答案要合理;
    2、回答出关键字眼即可得分,其他错处酌情扣分;
    3、第52小题第一个问题和55小题简略回答不扣分,其他小题酌情扣分;
    4、书写不规范、潦草的酌情扣分。
    十一、A). A A B C A
    B1). T T F T T
    B2). A C B C A
    十二、作文评分参考以下原则:
    1. 本题满分10分,可按5个档次给分。
    2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次,然后以该档次要求衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。 按0,0.5,1,给分。
    3. 原则上,一处错误(包括拼写、标点符号)扣 0.5 分。
    4. 书写潦草马虎的,可适当扣0.5~2分(书写分)。
    5. 评分时应关注语言准确性、连贯性和丰富性。如果语言太单调,句式太单一,或东拼西凑,即使词句没有错误,最多可以给8分。
    各档具体要求:
    第一档(8-10分):
    内容丰富,所使用句式和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
    第二档(6-8分):
    内容比较丰富,可能有些许错误,局部影响意义表达。
    第三档(4-6分):
    写出了若干有关内容,只能表达部分意义。
    第四档(2-4分):
    写出了两三个句子,内容缺少连贯性,有较多词汇或语法错误。
    第五档(0-2分):
    产出内容太少,词汇很有限,有很多词汇或语法错误,严重影响了意义的表达,或所写内容与所题目要求无关。
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