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    山东省潍坊第四中学2022届高三上学期收心考试英语试题 含答案

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    这是一份山东省潍坊第四中学2022届高三上学期收心考试英语试题 含答案,共18页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7,15,__40___等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    潍坊四中2021-2022学年第一学期收心考试
    高三英语
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    例:How much is the shirt?
      A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
      答案是C
    1. Where is Jennifer working now?
    A. In a college. B. In a hospital. C. In a drug store.
    2. What does the man advise the woman to buy?
    A. A red skirt.
    B. A white sweater.
    C. A pair of blue jeans.
    3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
    A. Mother and son. B. Business partners. C. Boss and secretary.
    4. What does the woman ask John to do?
    A. Do his homework.
    B. Take the piano class.
    C. Pick up the package.
    5. How much will the man pay?
    A. $15. B. $30. C. $60.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
     听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
    A. Inexperienced drivers.
    B. A terrible car accident.
    C. Safe driving on the road.
    7. When does the woman feel nervous?
    A. A car cuts in at will.
    B. A car is close behind her car.
    C. A car turns without turn signals.

    听第7段材料,回答第8至10题.
    8. How long did it take to get to Nanjing before?
    A. 2 hours. B. 1.5 hours. C. 1 hour.
    9. Why did the man come to China?
    A. To have a trip.
    B. To work as a teacher.
    C. To visit a Chinese university.
    10. Where does the conversation probably take place?
    A. On a train. B. At a ticket office. C. In a waiting room.
    听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
    11. How long has the man played the piano up to now?
    A. For 10 years. B. For 15 years. C. For 20 years.
    12. What do we know about the man?
    A. He started to write music at ten.
    B. He enjoys giving concerts in schools.
    C. His CDs have become the best seller.
    13. How does the woman like the man?
    A. Creative. B. Excellent. C. Just so so.
    听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
    14. Where does Amanda want to spend her summer holiday?
    A. In Beijing. B. In London. C. In New York.
    15. What does Amanda's mother want her to do?
    A. Learn about Chinese culture.
    B. Look after her grandmother.
    C. Offer some help on the farm.
    16. Who did the man plan to go to London with?
    A. His friends. His mother. C. His grandmother.
    听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
    17. What will happen in 2022?
    A. A new space lab will be built.
    B. The first space hotel will open.
    C. Astronauts will live in the space hotel.
    18. How many guests can the space hotel hold at a time?
    A. Two. B. Four. C. Six.
    19. What can guests do in the space hotel?
    A. Cook food.
    B. Watch movies.
    C. Have a video chat.
    20. What does the speaker think of the space trip?
    A. Relaxing. B. Dangerous. C. Expensive.

    第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
    A
    All of us spend a large part of our lives at home — eating, sleeping, relaxing and communicating with our family members. Our home is a shelter for us, away from the noisy, busy, and polluted world outside — a place where we can let down our hair and dress casually. Eco­friendliness (环保) is a hot word today and we all know we should make our environment as eco­friendly as possible. This is not only good for our health, but also good for the outward environment. Here are some easy and helpful tips to make your home eco­friendly.
        Kitchen
        Plan the kitchen to be bright and airy so that you don't have to turn on the lights at daytime. Don't make wasteful use of the gas. Keep all ingredients for cooking ready before lighting the gas. Turn it to low when not required — always using it on "high" burns a lot of gas.
        Indoor plants
        Plants are extremely eco­friendly and can be used to make your home look lively. Apart from adding life to home, they give out O2, thus making the air inside fresh. You can keep plants in your home, but be sure to show them some sunlight regularly. Also, if they are kept outside, clean their leaves with a wet cloth, as dust may be added to them. A home decorated with plants looks attractive. Plants are a natural home decorating gift that shows concern about the environment. A green plant is a wonderful gift which will protect the earth and is sure to be appreciated.
        Saving water
        Most of the time, we take water for granted — we keep water running while brushing our teeth or washing clothes. Needless to say, this is a huge waste of natural resources. Try to recycle water. For example, the water used for washing vegetables can be used for watering plants; the soapy water used for washing clothes can be used to clean the bathroom and kitchen.
    21. Why is the importance of our home discussed in Paragraph 1?
    A. To advise us to communicate more with our family members.
    B. To show the outside world is noisy and polluted.
    C.To advise us to spend more time staying at home.
    D. To show it's necessary to make our home eco­friendly.
    22. What is advised to be done in the kitchen?
    A.To open the window. B.To save energy.
    C.To prepare simple meals. D.To turn down lights.
    23. What does the underlined part in Paragraph 4 mean?
    A.We don't use water frequently.
    B.We try our best not to waste water.
    C.We don't realize the importance of water.
    D.We make full use of water.
    B
    British sculptor Jason Taylor has made it his mission to use his talent to conserve our ecosystems by creating underwater museums. Over the years, the environmentalist has put over 850 massive artworks underwater worldwide. On February 1, 2021, Taylor launched his latest work — The Underwater Museum of Cannes.
    “The main goal was to bring attention to the fact that our oceans need our help,” Taylor told Dezeen. “Ocean ecology has been destroyed by human activity in the Mediterranean over the past few decades, and it is not obvious what is taking place when observing the sea from afar.”
    The Underwater Museum of Cannes contains 6 sculptures featuring local residents of various ages. They range from Maurice, an 80-year-old fisherman, to Anouk, a 9-year-old student. Towering over 6-feet-tall and weighing 10 tons, the faces are sectioned into two parts, with the outer part like a mask. The mask indicates that the world’s oceans appear powerful and unbeatable from the surface but house an ecosystem that is extremely fragile to careless human activities.
    Though the waters surrounding the sculptures now appear a pristine blue, the seabed was filled with old boat engines, pipes, and other human-made trash when the project began about four years ago. Besides removing the trash, Taylor also restored the area’s seagrass. Just one square meter of the seagrass can generate up to 10 liters of oxygen daily. The seagrass also helps prevent coastal erosion(侵蚀) and provides habitats for many ocean creatures.
    “The idea of creating an underwater museum was to draw more people underwater and develop a sense of care and protection,” Taylor told Dezeen. “If we threw unwanted waste near a forest, there would be a public outcry. But this is happening every day in our surrounding waters and it largely goes unnoticed.”
    24. What are the underwater museums intended to do?
    A. To make huge profits.
    B. To raise awareness of protecting the ocean.
    C. To show Jason Taylor’s talent.
    D. To draw attention to endangered sea animals.
    25. Why does the outer part of the sculptures look like a mask?
    A. To popularize the features of the locals.
    B. To remind people to protect themselves.
    C. To reflect people’s protection of the ocean.
    D. To stress the sensitiveness of the ecosystem.
    26. What’s paragraph 4 mainly about?
    A. How the project was started.
    B. How the seagrass was restored.
    C. What recovery effort the project made.
    D. Why the surroundings were improved.
    27. What can we infer from what Jason Taylor said in the last paragraph?
    A. The situation of the ocean is easily ignored.
    B. The destruction caused to the ocean is noticeable.
    C. Forests play a more important role in ecosystems.
    D. People have zero tolerance to damage done to nature.
    C
    An amount of the best research on daily experience, according to some experts, is based on rates of positive and negative interactions, which has proved that being blindly positive or negative can cause others to be frustrated or annoyed or to simply tune out.
    Over the last two decades, scientists have made remarkable predictions simply by watching people interact with one another and then scoring the conversations based on the rate of positive and negative interactions. Researchers have used the findings to predict everything from the likelihood that a couple will divorce to the chances of a work team with high customer satisfaction and productivity levels.
    More recent research helps explain why these brief exchanges matter so much. When you experience negative emotions as a result of disapproval or rejection, for example, your body produces higher levels of the stress hormone, which shuts down much of your thinking and activates conflict and defense mechanisms. You assume that situations are worse than they actually are.
    When you experience a positive interaction, it activates a very different response. Positive exchanges increase your body’s production of oxytocin, a feel-good thing that increases your ability to communicate with, cooperate with and trust others. But the effects of a positive occurrence are less dramatic and lasting than how they are for a negative one.
    We need at least 3 to 5 positive interactions to outweigh one negative exchange. Bad moments simply outweigh good ones. Whether you’re having a conversation* keep this simple short cut in mind: At least 80 percent of your conversations should be focused on what’s going right.
    Workplaces, for example, often see this. During performance reviews, managers routinely spend 80 percent of their time on weaknesses and “areas for improvement”. They spend roughly 20 percent of the time on strengths and positive aspects. Any time you have discussions with a person or group, spend the vast majority of the time talking about what is working, and use the remaining time to address weaknesses.
    28. What does the underlined phrase “tune out” in paragraph 1 probably mean?
    A. Stop listening. B. Change one’s mind.
    C. Sing aloud. D. Be crazy.
    29. What will happen if we experience negative emotions?
    A. The situations are sure to become worse.
    B. Much of our thinking will be prevented.
    C. We will feel an urge to improve and become better.
    D. We’ll be motivated to settle conflicts with people.
    30. What can we learn from paragraph 4?
    A. We need a positive feeling to beat one negative feeling.
    B. Positive interactions have greater effects than negative ones.
    C. Our conversation should center on what needs improvement.
    D. The effect of negative feelings lasts longer than that of positive ones.
    31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
    A. Harmful Negative Interactions
    B. More Positive Interactions
    C. How to Promote Workplace Productivity
    D. Less Time on Strengths and Positive Aspects
    D
    Shining just 12 light-years from Earth, the star Tau Ceti so resembles the sun that it has appeared in numerous science- fiction stories and was the first star astronomers ever searched for signs of intelligent life, half a century ago. In 2012 Tau Ceti grew still more interesting when astronomers reported five possible planets somewhat larger than Earth circling closer to the star than Mars orbits (围绕……运动) the sun—one of which is in the star’s habitable zone. Newly released images taken by the Herschel Space Observatory provide even more insight about Tau Ceti’s solar system: greater detail about its dust belt.
    Dust arises when asteroids and comets (小行星和彗星) crash into one another, so its location reveals where these dust- creating objects — which are too small to be seen directly — orbit a star. In Tau Ceti’s case, “it’s quite a wide dust belt,” says Samantha Lawler of the University of Victoria in British Columbia. As her team reported in November, the belt’s inner edge is roughly two to three astronomical units (AUs) from the star, which is the position of our own sun’s asteroid belt. (An AU is the distance from Earth to the sun.) Tau Ceti’s dust belt extends out to 55 AU, which would be just beyond our system’s main Edgeworth-Kuiper belt, the zone of small bodies whose largest member is probably Pluto. Probably full of asteroids and comets, Tau Ceti’s dust belt most likely lacks a planet as large as Jupiter, Lawler says. The gravity of such a massive planet would have driven away most small space rocks.
    Within a year a new series of radio telescopes in Chile called ALMA should provide a sharper view of the disk, especially of its inner edge. The ALMA images will help astronomers confirm whether the star’s five proposed planets are indeed real. If the disk overlaps(重叠) the planets’ hypothesized (假设的) orbits, then they probably do not exist; they would have kept away most asteroids near the star, removing the source of dust.
    If those planets do exist, however, Lawler’s team suggests that Tau Ceti’s planetary system may resemble what our solar system would have looked like had the four giant planets—Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune- never formed: small planets orbiting close to the star, and nothing but asteroids, comets and dust beyond.
    32. According to astronomers, the five possible planets of Tau Ceti________.
    A. resembled Earth in size
    B. functioned like a solar system
    C. were located in Tau Ceti’s habitable zone
    D. were nearer to Tau Ceti than Mars to the sun
    33. Which of the following is true of Tau Ceti’s dust belt?
    A. It is narrower than the asteroid belt in our system.
    B. The bodies inside it are all smaller than Jupiter.
    C. The gravity of Tau Ceti makes it get denser.
    D. It is over 55 astronomical units in width.
    34. According to the passage, the five planets are most likely to exist if________.
    A. they don’t move into the dust belt while orbiting Tau Ceti
    B. they have kept away most asteroids and comets
    C. they don’t crash into any asteroid or comet
    D. they can be seen clearly by ALMA
    35. It can be inferred from the passage that Tau Ceti’s dust belt________.
    A. is useful because it stops asteroids or comets crashing into the star
    B. makes Tau Ceti different from the sun because it extends farther
    C. is interesting because it keeps other planets away from Tau Ceti
    D. plays a role in helping decide whether the five planets are real
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5 分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    According to Jessica Hagy, author of How to Be Interesting, it's not difficult to make yourself interesting at a dinner party.
    ___36___, if you're out of your comfort zone or if you're wandering into somebody's house for the first time. So the main thing is just to show up and be adventurous, trying different foods and talking to strangers.
    People love to talk about themselves. If you can start the conversation with a question other than “What do you do for a living?", you'll be able to get a lot more interesting conversation out of whomever it is you're talking to. ____37 ___. it can bring in "I have this old, broken-down vehicle" or "I rode the bus with these crazy people who were laughing at silly jokes in the back." It just opens up conversation.
    ____38___? If you can't take their wine away, you should certainly try to take away their soapbox (讲台). If you're the host, you can ask them to help you in the kitchen with something and just remove them from the situation. ___39_____
    And what about that other dinner-party killer: awkward silence? If you're faced with an awkward silence at a dinner party, the only thing that always gets everyone talking again is to give the host a compliment (赞扬).__40___. Just quickly tun around and say, "This cake is extremely delicious and you have to tell me all about it.”
    So being interesting at a dinner party isn’t that hard.
    A. How do you know the host
    B. The first step is to go exploring
    C. If you ask the question "How did you get here?',
    D. Be prepared to have awkward conversations with strangers
    E. Or turn the conversation into a topic where they have little to say
    F. What about that person who has had too much to drink or won't stop talking
    G. He or she is the person who is feeling the weight of that awkwardness the most

    第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
    I had been swimming competitively for about five years and was ready to quit, because I __41__ receiving “Honorable Mentions(鼓励奖)”at each competition, which simply __42__,“Thank you for coming. You didn't even rank first, second or third, but we don't want you to go home with __43__.”
    The very day before a big swim meet, I decided to tell my grandma that I was quitting the swim team, but she said, “Baby, __44__ these words:A quitter never wins and a __45__never quits. You go to that swim meet tomorrow.”
    The next day I arrived at the swim meet, and as I __46__ the board,I noticed the other girls with their skintight caps, goggles (护眼镜) and Speedo suits were here to do one thing—__47__ me.
    The competition began and I was swimming __48__ than before. I noticed I was tied with one person. I thought we were battling for eighth place and I refused to finish __49__, so I added more kick on the last two hundred yards.
    I hit the __50__ and looked to the left and to the right for the swimmers who had beat me, but __51__ was there. They must have gotten out of the __52__ already. I raised my head to see my coach __53__ hysterically(歇斯底里). My eyes __54__ her pointing finger and couldn’t believe what I saw--the other swimmers had just reached the halfway point of the pool.
    That day, I broke the national 15- year-old- 400-freestyle record. I had hung up my honorable mentions. That day, I __55__ them with a huge gold medal.
    41.A. kept          B.hated          C.enjoyed           D.stopped
    42.A. expresses       B.reads C.means                  D.says
    43.A. anything         B.something C.everything            D.nothing
    44.A. read              B.remember C.repeat                  D.recall
    45.A. winner            B.loser C.swimmer            D.fighter
    46.A. got on             B.got off C.jumped off             D.climbed up
    47.A. support           B.cheer  C.win                        D.beat
    48.A. harder          B.more             C.faster             D.better
    49.A. hopeless          B.disappointed C.last                        D.second
    50.A. record         B.wall         C.mark             D.line
    51.A. everyone           B.someone C.no one                   D.anyone
    52. A. breath B. water C. time D. race
    53. A. encouraging B. smiling C. running D. screaming
    54. A. saw B. held C. followed D. grasped
    55. A. helped B. joined C. admired D. replaced
    第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Cities are diverse ecosystems, and a large number of species share our urban areas. As our city spreads, we need to think about 56________________ it is like for other species to have human neighbors.
    Because cities 57________________(build) for humans, they do not always provide suitable habitats for wildlife. For example, most city parks are kept neat and tidy so that humans will find them 58________________(pretty) than before. But when we cut grass or plant flowers, we destroy natural habitats.
    When a bridge in Austin, Texas was repaired, engineers added small gaps running along the length of its bottom, 59________________ made a good home for bats, and soon the bridge was the home of thousands of bats. At first, people were afraid 60________________ the bats. Now, they have come to value 61________________ (they) winged neighbors. The bats are a tourist 62________________ (attract) and they eat lots of bugs every night.
    There are also structures built with the objective of 63________________ (bring) wildlife into the city. The Beijing Olympic Forest Park is a good example. The park 64________________ (use) native plants and created open, natural spaces for wildlife. The result is a zone where over 160 species of birds can move about 65________________ (free). If we learn to share our space, we can become better neighbors to the wildlife around us.

    第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节 (满分15分)
    假设你是李华,上周你接待了外国留学生,带领他们体验了中国茶文化的全过程。请你写一篇英文周记,记述你上周接待外国学生的过程。
    注意:
    1. 词数80左右;
    2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
    3. 提示词:茶壶teapot
    __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    第二节(满分25 分)
    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    On the way back from work every evening, there would be a homeless man standing at the exit of the freeway. He looked to be in his late 40's but was probably a lot younger. His eyes were what struck me the most about him, they were brown and they had a sparkle. People say they can tell a lot from a person’s eyes. It was certainly true in his case. He always waved at every car, he was always happy and smiling and sometimes almost dancing.
    Every day after work I would remember to gather any spare change and quickly roll down my window and give him the coins. Occasionally the red light would be on for a minute and we would ask each other about our day. His answer would always be the same, “I’m blessed!”. I knew what his answer was going to be every time, yet I would still ask. It amazed me that even in his situation of being homeless he was so positive, and his answer would remind me of how blessed I was. A single mother of four amazing kids, with a place to call home and with a job to provide for my kids.
    Then one day I was called into my boss’s office and was told that I was being laid off due to the economy. For the rest of that day, a feeling of worry engulfed(淹没)me. Needless to say that on my way home that day I was very sad and upset. I didn’t remember to look for my spare change and keep it ready like I usually did. But there he was as always, as I turned the ramp(斜坡). He set his eyes on me, while still smiling and waving at others.
    注意:1. 续写词数应为150词左右;
    2. 请按照如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

    I’d hoped to catch the green light, but I missed it._________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    What he gave me was more than a dollar bill.____________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________





    潍坊四中2021-2022学年第一学期收心考试
    高三英语参考答案
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    1-5 AACCA 6-10 CBABC 11-15 ABBCA 16-20 ABBCC
    第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)
    21-25 DBCBD 26-30CAABD 31-35BDDAD 36-40BCFEG
    B篇
    本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲了Taylor创建水下博物馆的初衷以及该项目所产生的积极影响。
    24. B 细节理解题。根据第二段“‘The main goal was to bring attention to the fact that our oceans need our help,’ Taylor told Dezeen.(Taylor告诉Dezeen的记者:“我们的主要目标是让人们注意到我们的海洋需要我们的帮助。”)”可知,水下博物馆旨在提高人们保护海洋的意识。故选B。
    25. D 细节理解题。根据第三段“Towering over 6-feet-tall and weighing 10 tons, the faces are sectioned into two parts, with the outer part like a mask. The mask indicates that the world’s oceans appear powerful and unbeatable from the surface but house an ecosystem that is extremely fragile to careless human activities.(这些脸有6英尺高,重达10吨,被分成两部分,外部像一个面具。这幅面具表明,从表面上看,世界上的海洋似乎强大而不可战胜,但它的生态系统对于粗心大意的人类活动来说极其脆弱。)”可知,雕塑的外部看起来像一个面具是为了强调生态系统的敏感性。故选D。
    26. C 段落大意题。根据第四段“Though the waters surrounding the sculptures now appear a pristine blue, the seabed was filled with old boat engines, pipes, and other human-made trash when the project began about four years ago. Besides removing the trash, Taylor also restored the area’s seagrass. Just one square meter of the seagrass can generate up to 10 liters of oxygen daily. The seagrass also helps prevent coastal erosion and provides habitats for many ocean creatures.(虽然雕塑周围的水域现在呈现出一种纯净的蓝色,但当该项目大约四年前开始时,海底充满了旧的船只引擎、管道和其他人造垃圾。除了清理垃圾,泰勒还恢复了该地区的海草。仅仅一平方米的海草每天就能产生多达10升的氧气。海草还有助于防止海岸侵蚀,并为许多海洋生物提供栖息地。)”可知,该段主要讲了项目做出了哪些恢复努力。故选C。
    27. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段“‘The idea of creating an underwater museum was to draw more people underwater and develop a sense of care and protection,’ Taylor told Dezeen. ‘If we threw unwanted waste near a forest, there would be a public outcry. But this is happening every day in our surrounding waters and it largely goes unnoticed.’(Taylor告诉Dezeen的记者:“创建水下博物馆的想法是为了吸引更多的人到水下,并培养一种关心和保护的意识。如果我们在森林附近扔垃圾,会引起公众的强烈抗议。但这种情况每天都在我们周围的水域发生,而且很大程度上被忽视了。”)”可推断出:海洋的情况很容易被忽视。故选A。
    C篇
    本文是议论文,文章建议更积极的互动。
    28. A词句猜测题。根据第一段“which has proved that being blindly positive or negative can cause others to be frustrated or annoyed or to simply tune out.” 这已经证明,盲目的积极或消极会让别人感到沮丧、恼怒,或者“tune out”。根据句中的感到沮丧、恼怒,可知此处表示消极的词,A项符合句意,故选A项。
    29. B细节理解题。根据第三段“When you experience negative emotions as a result of disapproval or rejection, for example, your body produces higher levels of the stress hormone, which shuts down much of your thinking and activates conflict and defense mechanisms.” 例如,当你因为不赞同或拒绝而经历负面情绪时,你的身体会产生更高水平的压力荷尔蒙,它会关闭你的大部分思考,激活冲突和防御机制。可知,当人们陷入负面情绪时会停止思考。故选B项。
    30.D 细节理解题。根据第四段“But the effects of a positive occurrence are less dramatic and lasting than how they are for a negative one.” 但正面事件的影响没有负面事件的影响那么显著和持久。可知消极情绪的影响比积极情绪的影响持续时间更长。故选D项。
    31. B主旨大意题。根据最后一段“Any time you have discussions with a person or group, spend the vast majority of the time talking about what is working, and use the remaining time to address weaknesses.” 当你与一个人或一个小组进行讨论时,把大部分时间花在讨论什么是有效的,并利用剩余的时间来解决缺点。结合最后一段的建议和前文对于积极情绪和消极情绪的对比,可知文章主要在谈论更积极的互动。“更积极的互动”最适合作文章标题。故选B项。
    D篇
    这是一篇说明文。主要介绍了恒星天仓五的尘埃带的一些情况,以及在决定天仓五的五颗可能的行星是否真实存在方面的作用。
    32. D 细节理解题。根据第一段中“In 2012 Tau Ceti grew still more interesting when astronomers reported five possible planets somewhat larger than Earth circling closer to the star than Mars orbits (围绕……运动) the sun—one of which is in the star’s habitable zone. (2012年,天文学家们报道了五颗可能比地球大一些的行星,它们围绕着恒星天仓五运行,比火星绕太阳运行的距离更近,其中一颗位于恒星的可居住区,这使得天仓五变得更加有趣)”可知,天仓五的五颗可能的行星离天仓五的距离比火星离太阳的距离更近,故选D。
    33. D 细节理解题。根据第二段中“Tau Ceti’s dust belt extends out to 55 AU, which would be just beyond our system’s main Edgeworth-Kuiper belt, the zone of small bodies whose largest member is probably Pluto. (天仓五的尘埃带延伸到55个天文单位,刚好在我们系统的主要埃奇沃斯-柯伊伯带之外,这个小天体带的最大成员可能是冥王星。) ”可知,天仓五的尘埃带延伸到55个天文单位,也就是说天仓五的尘埃带的宽度超过55个天文单位。故选D。
    34. A 推理判断题。根据第三段中“If the disk overlaps the planets’ hypothesized (假设的) orbits, then they probably do not exist; they would have kept away most asteroids near the star, removing the source of dust. (如果尘埃盘与假设的行星轨道重叠,那么它们很可能不存在;它们会将大多数靠近恒星的小行星拒之门外,从而消除尘埃的来源) ”可知,如果尘埃盘与假设的行星轨道重叠,那么这五颗行星很可能不存在,也就意味着如果它们在绕天仓五运行时轨道没有和尘埃盘重叠,也就是没有进入尘埃带,那么它们可能是存在的,故选A。
    35. D 推理判断题。根据第三段“Within a year a new series of radio telescopes in Chile called ALMA should provide a sharper view of the disk, especially of its inner edge. The ALMA images will help astronomers confirm whether the star’s five proposed planets are indeed real. If the disk overlaps the planets’ hypothesized (假设的) orbits, then they probably do not exist; they would have kept away most asteroids near the star, removing the source of dust. (一年内,位于智利的一系列名为ALMA的新射电望远镜将提供更清晰的圆盘图像,特别是其内缘。ALMA的图像将帮助天文学家确认这颗恒星的五颗行星是否真的存在。如果圆盘与假设的行星轨道重叠,那么它们很可能不存在;它们会将大多数靠近恒星的小行星拒之门外,从而消除尘埃的来源) ”可知,根据天仓五尘埃带是否和假设的行星轨道重叠,能帮助天文学家确认这颗恒星的五颗行星是否真的存在,所以天仓五的尘埃带在决定五颗行星是否真实存在方面起着重要作用,故选D。
    第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    41-45ACDBA 46-50ADACB 51-55CBDCD
    56. what 57. are built 58. prettier 59. which 60. of
    61. their 62. attraction 63. bringing 64. used 65. freely
    第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(15分)
    Last week, I took the foreign students in our school to experience Chinese authentic tea culture, which turned out to be extremely rewarding.
    On arriving at the tea house, the foreign students were impressed by the unique teapots and teacups. I gave them a vivid introduction of tea culture and taught them how to make tea. Then I asked them to have a try. Washing the teapots, adding tea leaves, and pouring water into the cups, they followed my instructions and immersed themselves in the charming tea culture.
    At the end of the activity, we took a picture to memorize the unforgettable day.
    第二节(25分)
    I’d hoped to catch the green light, but I missed it. While I was waiting for the red light to turn, all I could think of was “How can I provide for my kids? How can I pay rent? What am I going to do?” Just then he strolled over to my car. He had a big smile and looked me straight in the eyes and said “today I will give you a dollar”. He then reached into his pocket and pulled out a dollar bill. I was blown away, bursting into tears.
    What he gave me was more than a dollar bill. He taught me a valuable lesson. No matter what material things are taken from you, no one can take away your choice to be joyful. My ride home was smooth sailing. I had lost my job and had no savings, but I knew I was blessed! Every time I’m faced with challenges, I always think of the homeless man’s valuable lesson and remember that I am blessed. Then, I can get up courage to overcome the difficulties and misfortunes.
    听力原文
    Text 1
    M: Where are you working now, Jennifer? Still in the hospital?
    W: No, I left the hospital and I refused the job at the drug store. I'm working as a teacher in a medical college now.
    Text 2
    W: I'm thinking of buying my daughter a pair of blue jeans for her birthday.
    M: If I were you, I would buy a red skirt. It goes really well with her white sweater.
    Text 3
    M: Ms. Brown, can you tell me my arrangements today?
    W: At 9 o'clock, you have a meeting. And then you should have lunch with your business partner. Oh, you said you will buy a gift for your son today.
    Text 4
    W: John, pick up the package downstairs, OK? I must go to work now.
    M: Oh, Mum, you know I have to do my homework now. Why not ask Lisa?
    W: You are always looking for excuses. Lisa is going out for her piano class.
    Text 5
    M: How much are the toys?
    W: We are having a sale today. The original price is 10 dollars each, but now it only costs half the price.
    M: All right, I’ll take three.
    Text 6
    M: The traffic was really terrible this morning.
    W: Why? Did anything in particular happen?
    M: The car in front of me wanted to turn left. But the driver didn’t use his turn signal and stopped suddenly at the crossing. He almost caused an accident.
    W: I'm glad there was no accident.
    M: Me too. People should pay attention to their driving behavior on the road.
    W: What do you mean?
    M: Some people never use their turn signals, so others don't know what they plan to do. And some cars cut in at will.
    W: Yes, these are very irresponsible acts. Some people like to drive close behind my car, which really makes me nervous.
    M: They need to learn to respect other drivers and make sure of safety on the road.
    Text 7
    M: Excuse me, do you mind if I sit here?
    W: Of course not. Go ahead.
    M: Thanks.
    W: Where are you going?
    M: I'm on my way to Nanjing. It is said that it only takes one and a half hours to get there now. It saves passengers half an hour.
    W: Yeah, it is because of the use of Fuxing bullet trains. They can reach 350km/h.
    M: Wow! That’s really amazing! Are you going to Nanjing, too?
    W: No, I’m going to Hangzhou.
    M: Really? I've been told many times that it's a very beautiful place, but I’ve never been there since I came to China two years ago.
    W: Yes, it is really worth visiting. Are you American or English?
    M: Well, actually, I come from Canada and I was invited by a Chinese university to teach western culture.
    Oh, it's time for my train. Nice talking with you.
    W: Goodbye! Have a good trip!
    Text 8
    W: Hi and welcome to Musical Talent! My name is Jane Brown and today I’m talking to Charlie from Seattle. Charlie, tell us about your music.
    M: Hi, Jane. I love music! I started playing the piano when I was 5 years old. Now, I write songs, sing and play the piano in a band.
    W: That’s wonderful! What kind of music do you write?
    M: Well, I write pop music, and I like playing rock, too.
    W: Have you ever played at any concerts?
    M: Yes, I have. Our band went to about ten schools in Seattle. It was a lot of fun.
    W: Have you made a CD yet?
    M: Yes, I have. I made one last year. It’s called Someone Like You, and I've already sold 5,000 CDs.
    W: Wow. How old are you?
    M: I'm 15.
    W: That’s great!
    Text 9
    M: What's your plan for the summer holiday, Amanda?
    W: I want to spend a month on my uncle's farm in New York. But my mother wishes me to go to Beijing, China.
    M: Why does she want you to go to Beijing? Does she want to travel round the city with you?
    W: No. My mother is from China. She wants to send me to Beijing to live with my grandmother, hoping the holiday will teach me a lot about Chinese culture.
    M: Well, do you want to go there?
    W: No. It's usually very hot in summer there. I just want to spend a relaxing summer at my uncle’s.
    M: So what will you do?
    W: I guess I'll tell my mother that I'll go to Beijing in the fall. It's usually very comfortable in Beijing then.
    M: That sounds like a good idea!
    W: So what's your plan for the summer?
    M: I planned to go to London with some friends. But they’re not available. So I’ll just stay in Los Angeles and do some part-time work.
    Text 10
    What is it like to travel in space? If you have ever watched space movies, you may know something about it. Aurora Station is the world’s first space hotel. US company Orion Span built the hotel. The hotel is around 12 feet wide and 35 feet long. It plans to welcome its first guests in 2022.It will fly 320 kilometers above Earth. It can hold six people at a time. Two of them will be workers. They may be former NASA astronauts. Each trip aboard the station will last for 12 days. Guests there will be able to do many interesting things. For example, they will see around 16 sunrises and sunsets every 24 hours. They can take part in research experiments such as growing food in space. Later, they can bring the food back to earth as a souvenir. These are the same things as astronauts usually do. Guests can also share what they see and hear with others on Earth. They can have a video chat using a high-speed Internet connection. But each guest will have to pay at least $9.5 million. That's really a large amount of money.














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